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CCENT Final Exam 1 — 50 Question Set

Posted on September 9, 2009. Filed under: CCENT Final Exam, Practice Exam |

Exam Source

Question 1: (QID=2961)

We want to assign port 3 of our Catalyst 2950 switch to VLAN 3. What command will achieve this?

1. switch(config)#switchport access vlan 3

2. switch#switchport access vlan 3

3. switch(config-if)#switchport vlan 3

4. switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 3

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: The switchport access vlan [number] command will configure a switch port to that VLAN. You can also use the switchport access vlan dynamic command to configure the switch port automatically in a certain VLAN depending on the VLAN membership of the incoming packets. For both commands to work properly the switch port needs to be in access mode.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 2: (QID=25148)

Which command will allow only ssh connections to the router?

1. transport input telnet ssh

2. transport input ssh

3. transport ssh

4. transport ssh enable

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: The transport input ssh line configuration commands allows ssh connections only to the router.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 3: (QID=2986)

Which utility would we use to test all 7 OSI layers?

1. Ping

2. Trace route

3. Telnet

4. Show arp

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: If we can telnet from one device to the other we have proven that the routing (layer 3) and the physical layer are working properly. Since telnet is an application layer utility it gives us confirmation that all 7 OSI layers are working correctly between the two devices.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 4: (QID=1286)

You are the network administrator and are given the tasks to plan for the future expansion of the network. You decide to subnet the current network of 172.15.0.0. What will be the subnet mask be if every subnet has to allocate 500 hosts.

1. 255.255.0.0

2. 255.0.0.0

3. 255.255.240.0

4. 255.255.254.0

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: The requirement of having to allocate 500 hosts on each subnet can be achieved by the following: 2^9 = 512. So deducting the broadcast and network address we have 510 possible hosts on each subnet. We used 9 bits to allocate the hosts, this leaves us 7 bits for possible subnets. Those 7 bits in binary is 1111 1110 or 254 in decimal.

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 5: (QID=2359)

What address range is commonly used for testing purposes?

1. 10.0.0.0/16

2. Any available IP Address

3. 127.0.0.0/8

4. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.255

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: The 127.0.0.0/8 address range in the Class A range is a reserved address range and used for testing purposes.

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 6: (QID=2975)

If we have multiple IOS versions on our router, how can we view which ones are available?

1. Show version

2. Show memory

3. Show file systems

4. Show flash:

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: The show flash: command displays the contents of the flash file system.

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 7: (QID=2375)

What do you use when you want to display a message to all the terminals connected to a router?

1. banner login

2. banner motd

3. banner exec

4. banner slip-ppp

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: This MOTD banner is displayed to all terminals connected and is useful for sending messages that affect all users (such as impending system shutdowns). Use the no exec-banner or no motd-banner command to disable the MOTD banner on a line. The no exec-banner command also disables the EXEC banner on the line. When a user connects to the router, the MOTD banner appears before the login prompt. After the user logs in to the router, the EXEC banner or incoming banner will be displayed, depending on the type of connection. For a reverse Telnet login, the incoming banner will be displayed. For all other connections, the router will display the EXEC banner. Connection, Menu, and System Banner Commands

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 8: (QID=1294)

Given the following IP Address 172.16.0.0/27 what is the 4th subnet’s network address, host range and broadcast address? The router is running IOS version 12.2.

1. Subnet address 172.16.1.0, host range 172.16.1.1 – 172.16.1.30, broadcast address 172.16.1.31

2. Subnet address 172.16.0.128, host range 172.16.0.129 – 172.16.0.158, broadcast address 172.16.0.159

3. Subnet address 172.16.0.96, host range 172.16.0.97 – 172.16.0.126, broadcast address 172.16.0.127

4. Subnet address 172.16.1.128, host range 172.16.1.129 – 172.16.1.158, broadcast address 172.16.0.159

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: The default subnet mask for a class B address is /16 so we will have 11 bits for subnets.

12.2 is the IOS mentioned and that has the IP Subnet-Zero command enabled by default.

So the total amount of subnets is 2^11 = 2048 subnets. On each subnet we will have 2^5 – 2 = 30 hosts on each subnet.

Now we will calculate the subnet ranges. The following table is the binary version of the last octet.

subnet bits host bits IP address role

000 00000 172.16.0.0 1st subnet network address

000 00001 172.16.0.1 host # 1

000 00010 172.16.0.2 host # 2

000 11110 172.16.0.30 host # 30

000 11111 172.16.0.31 broadcast address for 1st subnet

001 00000 172.16.0.32 2nd subnet network address

001 00010 172.16.0.34 host # 2 on 2nd subnet

001 11111 172.16.0.63 broadcast address for 2nd subnet

010 00000 172.16.0.64 3rd subnet network address

010 11111 172.16.0.95 broadcast address 3rd subnet

011 00000 172.16.0.96 4th subnet network address

011 11111 172.16.0.127 broadcast address 4th subnet

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 9: (QID=2995)

Which of the following symbols indicate that a ping was successful?

1. !

2. .

3. ?

4. U

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: The following table explains the output generated by ping:

! – reply received

. – timed out

U – unreachable

C – congestion

? – unknown packet type

& packet lifetime exceeded

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 10: (QID=25114)

Which layer of the OSI Model does a gateway operate at?

1. Session

2. Application

3. Network

4. Datalink

5. Physical

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: [Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 11: (QID=3629)

What are the 2 sublayers of the Data Link layer of the OSI model?

1. Logical Layer Control

2. Logical Link Control

3. Media Access Control

4. Medium Access Control

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2 3

Explanation:

Layer Name Protocol/Services Details

7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network

6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation

5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions

4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links

3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format

2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium

1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 12: (QID=25126)

Which of the following are valid actions of port-security?

1. shutdown

2. restrict

3. protect

4. reset

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 2 3

Explanation: The switchport port-security violation interface configuration command has the following options:

Shutdown (the default)

Restrict

Protect

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 13: (QID=2341)

Why would a network administrator implement VLANs?

1. Security

2. Higher latency

3. Performance enhancement

4. No more need for routers

5. Broadcast control

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3 5

Explanation: Here are some common reasons that a company might have VLANs:

Security – Separating systems with sensitive data from the rest of the network decreases the chance that someone will gain access to information they are not authorized to see.

Projects/Special applications – Managing a project or working with a specialized application can be simplified by the use of VLAN that brings all of the required nodes together.

Performance/Bandwidth – Careful monitoring of network use allows the network administrator to create VLANs that reduce the number of router hops and increase the apparent bandwidth for network users.

Broadcasts/Traffic flow – Since a principle element of a VLAN is the fact that it does not pass broadcast traffic to nodes that are not part of the VLAN, it automatically reduces broadcasts. Access lists provide the network administrator with a way to control who sees what network traffic. An access list is a table the network administrator creates that lists what addresses have access to that network.

Departments/Specific job types – Companies may want VLANs set up for departments that are heavy network users (such as Multimedia or Engineering) or a VLAN across departments that is dedicated to specific types of employees (such as managers or sales people).

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 14: (QID=2354)

Which of the following describe full-duplex Ethernet?

1. it uses point-to-point connections

2. is limited to speeds of 100Mb

3. stations can transmit and receive at the same time

4. it uses point-to-multipoint connections

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3

Explanation: Using full-duplex Ethernet makes it possible for devices to transmit and receive at the same time which results in bandwidth optimization. Point-to-point connections are used between the device and switch. The IEEE802.x committee designed a standard for full duplex that covers 10BaseT, 100BaseX and 1000BaseX.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 15: (QID=25140)

Which of the following would you use if you wanted to transfer data securely across the internet?

1. VPN

2. Leased Line

3. URL Filtering

4. Anti-x

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: A VPN is used to securely transfer data across insecure media, like the Internet.

[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]

——————————————————————————–

Question 16: (QID=25145)

The address field in a frame-relay header is called?

1. MAC

2. DLCI

3. PVC

4. SVC

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: The DLCI (Data-Link Connection Identifier) is the address field in a frame-relay header.

[Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 17: (QID=3619)

What is the default encapsulation on a Cisco router serial interface?

1. Frame-Relay

2. SDLC

3. PPP

4. HDLC

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: High-Level Data Link Control. Bit-oriented synchronous data link layer protocol developed by ISO. Derived from SDLC, HDLC specifies a data encapsulation method on synchronous serial links using frame characters and checksums. [Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 18: (QID=25144)

viewimage1

What type of cable is shown in the exhibit?

1. AEIA/TIA-232

2. EIA-530

3. X.21

4. V.35

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: [Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 19: (QID=1282)

Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for reliable transmission of data segments?

1. Session

2. Application

3. Transport

4. Data-Link

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: Layer Name Protocol/Services Details

7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network

6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation

5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions

4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links

3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format

2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium

1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 20: (QID=1307)

Which of the following protocols operate at Layer 3 of the OSI model? [Select all that apply]

1. IP

2. TCP

3. ICMP

4. UDP

5. ARP

6. SPX

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3 5

Explanation: Layer Name Protocol/Services Details

7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network

6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation

5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions

4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links

3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format

2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium

1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 21: (QID=1297)

What command will change the hostname of a router?

1. router#host name new name

2. router(config-router)#hostname new name

3. router>host name new name

4. router(config)#hostname new name

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: To specify or modify the host name for the network server, use the hostname command in global configuration mode.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 22: (QID=2362)

What command do we use to find out how long our router has been online?

1. Show version

2. Show hardware

3. Show uptime

4. Show history

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: The results of the show version command are shown below:

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 23: (QID=25128)

802.11a uses which frequency range?

1. 900 MHz

2. 2.4 GHz

3. 5 GHz

4. 7 GHz

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: The 5GHz frequency band is used by 802.11a wireless standard.

[Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN]

——————————————————————————–

Question 24: (QID=25118)

Which of the following protocols are routing protocols? [Select all that apply]

1. BGP

2. FTP

3. OSPF

4. SMTP

5. SNMP

6. RIP

7. NNTP

8. IGRP

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3 6 8

Explanation: Routing protocols are used by intermediate systems to build tables used in determining path selection of routed protocols. Examples of these protocols include Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP), Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (Enhanced IGRP), Open Shortest Path First (OSPF), Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP), Border Gateway Protocol (BGP), Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS), and Routing Information Protocol (RIP).

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 25: (QID=25123)

What is the meaning of amber SYST led on a 2960 switch?

1. This is normal operation

2. There is a bridging loop

3. The switch IOS is loading

4. The switch failed its POST

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: When the switch failed its POST, Power-On Self Test, the SYST led will turn amber and the IOS did not load.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 26: (QID=2379)

We want to go back to user EXEC from privileged EXEC. What command do we use to achieve this without exiting the session?

1. Exit

2. Log out

3. Disable

4. Logout

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: Click here for more information.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 27: (QID=3632)

As a network administrator we want to make it easy to assign IP addresses to hosts. What protocol do we use?

1. DNS

2. DHCP

3. HSRP

4. NTP

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: DHCP, as described by RFC 1541, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol is used for dynamically assigning network addresses and host specific configuration parameters.

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 28: (QID=2343)

Which of the following Routing Protocols are considered Interior Protocols?

1. OSPF

2. EGP

3. RIP

4. EIGRP

5. BGP

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3 4

Explanation: Interior protocols are used for routing networks that are under a common network administration. All IP interior gateway protocols must be specified with a list of associated networks before routing activities can begin. A routing process listens to updates from other routers on these networks and broadcasts its own routing information on those same networks. Cisco IOS software supports the following interior routing protocols:

Internet Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP)

Enhanced Internet Gateway Routing Protocol (Enhanced IGRP)

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS)

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 29: (QID=25116)

Wireless LANs are defined by which IEEE standard?

1. 802.10

2. 802.5

3. 802.3

4. 802.11

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: Introduction to Wireless LANs

[Explain and select the appropriate administrative tasks required for a WLAN]

——————————————————————————–

Question 30: (QID=3685)

What are some advantages of having a layered OSI Model? [Select all that apply]

1. Changes at one layer do not affect the other layers

2. Networks are harder to design

3. Different vendor’s equipment can easily interoperate

4. Changes at one layer are propagated throughout the other layers

5. Prevents routing loops

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3

Explanation: The main goal of the OSI model is to allow different vendors’ networks to interoperate. Some benefits of the OSI model are:

changes at a certain layer do no affect the other layers.

various types of hardware & software can communicate with each other.

networks are more extensible.

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 31: (QID=3696)

Given the following network range 192.168.0.0/24. We want minimum 50 hosts on each of the available subnets. What will be the subnet mask?

1. /24

2. /25

3. /26

4. /27

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: 50 hosts require 6 bits of the last octet giving us 64 -2 = 62 possible hosts this satisfies our requirement and leaves us 2 bits over for the subnets. The default mask is /24 or 255.255.255.0 adding the 2 bits for the subnets it becomes 255.255.255.192 or /26.

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 32: (QID=1299)

Which key-sequence would you use to move the cursor to the beginning of the line?

1. CTRL+ P

2. CTRL+ E

3. CTRL + A

4. CTRL + F

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: Keystrokes Purpose

Press Ctrl-B or press the left arrow key Moves the cursor back one character

Press Ctrl-F or press the right arrow key Moves the cursor forward one character

Press Ctrl-A Moves the cursor to the beginning of the command line

Press Ctrl-E Moves the cursor to the end of the command line

Press Esc B Moves the cursor back one word

Press Esc F Moves the cursor forward one word

Ctrl-P or the up arrow key Recalls commands in the history buffer, beginning with the most recent command. Repeat the key sequence to recall successively older commands

Ctrl-N or the down arrow key Returns to more recent commands in the history buffer after recalling commands with Ctrl-P or the up arrow key. Repeat the key sequence to recall successively more recent commands

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 33: (QID=1301)

viewimage2

You are the administrator of network X. You decided to implement RIP in the following topology (click exhibit). You do not want R3 to receive RIP updates. What configuration changes need to be implemented?

1. Implement a passive-interface on R1

2. Nothing needs to be configured

3. Create a sub-interface on R1

4. Change the routing protocol to OSPF

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: To block RIP broadcasts on an interface connected to a subnet of a RIP-enabled network add the passive-interface command to the RIP Process.

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 34: (QID=25124)

How do you enable SSH on your switch?

1. switch(config-line)#input ssh

2. switch(config-line)#transport input ssh

3. switch(config-line)#transport ssh

4. SSH is enabled by default

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: The transport input ssh command will allow SSH sessions to your switch. You also need to create a user and password and generate a public and private key pair.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 35: (QID=25136)

When we have a variation in delay it is called?

1. Loss

2. Latency

3. Delay

4. Jitter

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: Jitter occurs when there is a variation in the delay.

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 36: (QID=2998)

viewimage3

After connecting two routers back-to-back we are unable to ping across the serial connection. A closer look reveals that both serial interfaces have the following status:

‘Serial0 is up, line protocol is down’

What needs to be configured on one of the routers to bring the serial interface up? [See the exhibit for network topology]

A) router1(config)# interface serial 0

router1(config-if)#clock rate 64000

B) router1(config)#interface serial 0

router1(config-if)#clockrate 64000

C) router2(config)#interface serial 0

router2(config-if)#clockrate 64000

D) router2(config)#interface serial 0

router2(config-if)#clock rate 64000

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: When connecting router back-to-back with a DTE/DCE cross-over cable we need to set the clocking on the DCE side of the connection. The show controllers serial [interface nr] command tells you what side is DTE or DCE.

[Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 37: (QID=3002)

viewimage4

We try to look at the log on the router but we get the following [see exhibit]. What do we need to do in order to view the log?

1. Reboot the router

2. Use the logging buffered global configuration command

3. Use the enable log all global configuration command

4. We can not do anything since there is no such thing as a log

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: To enable system messages to a local buffer use the logging buffered [size] command in global configuration mode. The default size is 4096k and once this is full older messages will be overwritten with newer ones.

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 38: (QID=3633)

HTTP and FTP are found at which OSI layer?

1. Network layer

2. Transport layer

3. Application layer

4. Presentation layer

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation:

Layer Name Protocol/Services Details

7 Application Telnet, FTP, WWW, SMTP Provides and interface by which user applications access the network

6 Presentation ASCIIm, EBCDICm JPG, MIDI Encryption, compression and translation

5 Session RPC, NetBIOS Establishing, maintaining and mananging communication sessions

4 Transport TCP, UDP, SPX Flow and error control but for the end-to-end connection of 2 devices whose logical connection traverses a series of data links

3 Network IP, IPX, ARP, ICMP Routing of data across logical network paths is enabled here and defines packet and addressing format

2 Data Link (Sub-layers are Media Access Control and Logical Link Control) Frame Relay, LAPB, PPP, Ethernet, Token Ring, FDDI Controls how the medium is shared and accessed, how the devices are identified, how data is framed before transmission on the medium

1 Physical Electrical/optical protocols Voltage levels, timing of voltage changes, physical data rates, maximum transmission distances, physical connectors and other similar attributes are defined here

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 39: (QID=25117)

For the network 192.168.1.0/27, what is the 5th subnet’s network address, broadcast address and host range? IP Subnet-zero is configured.

1. Subnet 192.168.1.0, Broadcast 192.168.1.31, hosts 192.1683.1.1 – 192.168.1.30

2. Subnet 192.168.1.160, Broadcast 192.168.1.191, hosts 192.168.1.161 – 192.168.1.190

3. Subnet 192.168.1.96, Broadcast 192.168.1.127, hosts 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126

4. Subnet 192.168.1.128, Broadcast 192.168.1.159, hosts 192.168.1.129 – 192.168.1.158

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: The default subnet mask for a class C address is /24 so we will have 3 bits for subnets.

So the total amount of subnets is 2^3 = 8 subnets

On each subnet we will have 2^5 – 2 = 30 hosts on each subnet

Now we will calculate the subnet ranges:

The following table is the binary version of the last octet.

Subnet bits Host Bits IP Address Role

000 00000 192.168.1.0 1st subnet network address

000 00001 192.168.1.1 host nr 1

000 00010 192.168.1.2 host nr 2

000 11110 192.168.1.30 host nr 30

000 11111 192.168.1.31 broadcast address for 1st subnet

001 00000 192.168.1.32 2nd subnet network address

001 00010 192.168.1.34 host nr 2 on 2nd subnet

001 11111 192.168.1.63 broadcast address for 2nd subnet

011 00000 192.168.1.96 4th subnet network address

011 11111 192.168.1.127 broadcast address 4th subnet

100 00000 192.168.1.128 5th subnet network address

100 11111 192.168.1.159 broadcast address 5th subnet

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 40: (QID=25137)

What kind of attack is designed to gather information?

1. DoS attack

2. DDoS attack

3. Reconnaissance attack

4. Access attack

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: A reconnaissance attack is an attack aimed at gathering information as preparation for further attacks.

[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]

——————————————————————————–

Question 41: (QID=25143)

Which of the following are considered CPE?

1. CSU/DSU

2. Telco switch

3. Router

4. Demarcation point

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1 3

Explanation: The CSU/DSU and router are considered CPE, Customer Premises Equipment.

[Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 42: (QID=2378)

What command do we use to determine if a Serial interface on a Cisco router is either DTE or DCE?

1. Show interface serialx

2. Show ip interface serialx

3. Show controllers serial x

4. Show role serial x

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: Click here for sample output of this command.

[Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 43: (QID=25115)

Which of the following protocols can you find at the Transport layer of TCP/IP model? [Select all that apply]

1. ICMP

2. TCP

3. IP

4. FTP

5. ARP

6. UDP

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2 6

Explanation: The Transport layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds with the Transport layer of the OSI model. TCP and UDP is found at these layers of the TCP/IP or OSI model.

[Describe the operation of data networks]

——————————————————————————–

Question 44: (QID=2987)

Our router has restarted and we want to know what caused this. Which command can we use to find out?

1. Show history

2. Show version

3. Show startup-config

4. Show ip protocols

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: When issuing the show version command we the output displays a line ‘System restarted by’ followed by a reason. This line will give a good indication what the reason was why the router restarted.

[Implement a small routed network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 45: (QID=1479)

Which of the following statements are true? [Select all that apply]

1. Switches control broadcast domains

2. Hubs control collision domains

3. Routers control broadcast domains

4. Hubs control broadcast domains

5. Switches control collision domains

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3 5

Explanation: Routers are the border of a broadcast domain because they don’t forward broadcasts by default. A switch can control a broadcast domain if VLANs are configured on the switch otherwise they divided the network in separate collision domains.

domains

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 46: (QID=25138)

What is described by a self-propagating piece of software that replicates itself on the network and usually used in DoS attacks?

1. Virus

2. Trojan

3. Spyware

4. Worm

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 4

Explanation: A worm is a program that self-propagates on the network without user intervention and is commonly used in DoS attacks.

[Identify security threats to a network and describe general methods to mitigate those threats]

——————————————————————————–

Question 47: (QID=25122)

Which of the following terms describes an IP address that represents a host on an enterprise network?

1. Inside global

2. Inside local

3. Outside global

4. Outside local

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 2

Explanation: The inside local address is the IP Address of a host that is local to the enterprise network.

[Implement and verify WAN links]

——————————————————————————–

Question 48: (QID=25142)

How many bytes make up the network portion of a class C address?

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 6

6. 8

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 3

Explanation: The first 3 octets of a class C address represents the network part, an octet is 1 byte long.

[Implement an IP addressing scheme and IP services to meet network requirements for a small branch office]

——————————————————————————–

Question 49: (QID=2965)

We want to create an additional VLAN on our Catalyst 2950 switch. Which command do we use?

A) Switch1(config)#vlan 45

Switch1(config-vlan)#end

B) Switch1(config-vlan)#vlan 45

Switch1(config-vlan)#end

C) Switch1(enable)#vlan 45

D) Switch1(config-vlan)#vlan 45

Switch1(config-vlan-database)#end

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: We create a new VLAN in global configuration mode. After creating the VLAN with the vlan VLAN_ID command we exit the VLAN database by using the end command to update this database.

[Implement a small switched network]

——————————————————————————–

Question 50: (QID=25134)

Which of the following is a mechanism used by TCP/IP to protect buffer space and routing devices?

1. Flow control using windowing

2. Connection establishment and termination

3. Error recovery

4. Multiplexing using ports

———————————————

Correct answer(s): 1

Explanation: Flow control using windowing is a mechanism used by TCP/IP to protect buffer space and routing devices in the transport layer of the OSI model.

[Describe the operation of data networks]

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CCNA Practice Exam — 50 Question Set

Posted on September 8, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Others, Practice Exam |

Exam Source

Q1. Which of the following is Class C IP address?

A. 10.10.14.118

B. 135.23.112.57

C. 191.200.199.199

D. 204.67.118.54

Correct Answer: D.

Explanation:

IP addresses are written using decimal numbers separated by decimal points. This is called dotted decimal notation of expressing IP addresses. The different classes of IP addresses is as below:

Class Format Leading Bit Network address Maximum Maximum pattern Range networks hosts

A N.H.H.H 0 0 – 126 127 16,777,214

B N.N.H.H 10 128 – 191 16,384 65,534

C N.N.N.H 110 192 – 223 2,097,152 254

Network address of all zeros means “This network or segment”.

Network address of all 1s means ” all networks”, same as hexadecimal of all Fs.

Network number 127 is reserved for loopback tests.

Host (Node) address of all zeros mean “This Host (Node)”.

Host (Node) address of all 1s mean “all Hosts (Nodes) ” on the specified network.

Q2. You have an IP of 156.233.42.56 with a subnet mask of 7 bits. How many hosts and subnets are possible?

A. 126 hosts and 510 subnets

B. 128 subnets and 512 hosts

C. 510 hosts and 126 subnets

D. 512 subnets and 128 hosts

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Class B network has the form N.N.H.H, the default subnet mask is 16 bits long.

There is additional 7 bits to the default subnet mask. The total number of bits in subnet are 16+7 = 23.

This leaves us with 32-23 =9 bits for assigning to hosts.

7 bits of subnet mask corresponds to (2^7-2)=128-2 = 126 subnets.

9 bits belonging to host addresses correspond to (2^9-2)=512-2 = 510 hosts.

Q3. Two sub layers of OSI Data Link layer are which of the following? [Select 2].

A. Logical Link Control

B. Data Link Control

C. Media Access Control

D. Physical Layer Control

Correct answer: A,C

Explanation:

Data Link Layer is layer 2 of OSI reference model. This layer is divided into two sub-layers:

1.Logical Link Control (LLC) sub-layer.

2. Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer.

The LLC sub-layer handles error control, flow control, framing, and MAC sub-layer addressing.

The MAC sub-layer is the lower of the two sub-layers of the Data Link layer.

MAC sub-layer handles access to shared media, such a Token passing or Ethernet.

Q4. Match the following:

A. Repeaters 1. Data Link Layer

B. Bridges 2. Network Layer

C. Routers 3. Physical Layer

Select the best combination:

A. A —>2, B—>3, C—>1

B. A—>3, B—->1, C—->2

C. A—>3,B—–>2, C—->1

D. A—->1, B—->2, C—->3

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

Repeaters work at Physical layer (Layer 1),

Bridges and simple switches work at Data Link Layer (Layer 2),

Routers work at Network Layer (Layer 3) of ISO Reference Model.

Q5. Which of the following are session layer standards? [Select 2].

A. NFS

B. SQL

C. JPG

D. MIDI

Correct answer: A,B

Explanation:

The following are some Presentation Layer standards:

Graphic and Visual Image: PICT, TIFF, JPEG

Movies and Sound: MIDI, MPEG, Quick Time

The following are Session layer standards:

NFS, SQL, RPC, X -Windows.

Q6. Match the corresponding layers of ISO and DoD models?

DoD Model ISO OSI Model

A. Process/Application 1. Application

B. Host-to-Host 2. Presentation

C. Internet 3. Session

D. Network Access 4. Transport

5. Network

6. Data Link

7. Physical

Choose best choice:

A. A->1+2; B->3+4; C->5; D->6+7

B. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5; D->6+7

C. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5+6; D->7

D. A->1+2+3; B->4+5; C->6; D->7

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

DoD Model maps to OSI model as below:

Process/ Application maps to OSI’s Application, Presentation,Session layers (layers 7,6,5).

Host-to-Host maps to ISO’s Transport layer (layer 4).

Internet maps to ISO’s Network layer (layer 3).

Network Access maps to ISO’s Data Link and Physical Layers (layers 6,7).

Q7. What is the command used to add a banner to a Cisco router configuration?

A. add banner

B. banner motd #

C. motd banner #

D. add banner #

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The banner is displayed whenever anyone logs in to your Cisco router. The syntax is

“banner motd # ” . MOTD stands for “Message Of The Day”.

# symbol signifies the start of the banner message to the router. You will be prompted for the

message to be displayed. You need to enter “#” symbol at the end of the message, signifying

that the msg has ended.

Q8. What is the default administrative distance for RIP?

A. 100

B. 120

C. 0

D. 200

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

Default administrative distances are as below:

Route Source Default Distance

Directly connect Interface 0

Static Route 1

IGRP 100

RIP 120

Unknown 255

The administrative distance (metric) is used to represent the trust worthiness of the route.

Q9. The Cisco Catalyst 1900 switches support which three LAN switch types? [Select 3].

A. Store-and-Forward

B. FragmentFree

C. InstaSwitch

D. FastForward

Correct answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

The Catalyst 1900 and 2820 series switches support three types of switching methods:

1. FastForward (Cut-through): In this type of switching, the packet is forwarded as soon as the destination address is read. This has least latency.

2. FragmentFree ( Modified cut-through): This type of switching is usefull when your network is experiencing large number of collisions. FragmentFree switching has a latency in between FastFoward and the Store-and-Forward.

3. Store-and-Forward: This method stores the entire frame and checks for errors before forwarding it on to another port. Store-and-forward has the highest latency compared with both FastForward and FragmentFree.

The default switching method used by Catalyst 1900 series switches is FastForward.

Q10. Which is true regarding VLANs?

A. VLAN technology uses VLAN switches (layer 2) which is a substitute for routing technology which uses routers.

B. A VLAN has same collision domain

C. A VLAN has same broadcast domain

D. VLANs are less secure with respect to simple switch or Hub networks.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

A VLAN is a group of devices on one or more logically segmented LANs. All devices working on a VLAN will have same broadcast domain. Like routers, switches (Layer 2) have the ability to provide domain broadcast segmentation called a VLAN. Using VLAN technology, you can group switch ports and their connected users into logically defined communities of interest. A VLAN operating on a Catalyst switch limits transmission of unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic to only the other ports belonging to that VLAN, thereby controlling broadcasts.

The benefits of VLANS include:

1. Easy Administration resulting in reduced administration costs,

2. Increased Security due to broadcast control, if you are using simple hub, you can observe traffic corresponding to any node by simply inserting a Network analyzer.

3. Grouping based on functional requirements irrespective of physical location of nodes,

4. Simplify moves, adds, changes,

5. Distribution of traffic thereby using the network bandwidth more efficiently.

Q11. Your internet work consists entirely of Cisco devices. You have given a command “show cdp neighbors”. In the response, you get “S” under the head “Capability”. What does the letter “S” mean?

A. It means “Source Route Bridge”

B. It means “Host”

C. It means “Switch”

D. It means “Static”

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The command “show CDP neighbors” displays all the neighboring devices connected and their capability. Several capability codes are:
R – Router
H – Host
T – Trans Bridge
I – IGMP
B – Source Route Bridge
r – repeater
S – Switch

This command “show CDP neighbors” displays the following:
1. Neighbor Device ID : The name of the neighbor device;
2. Local Interface : The interface to which this neighbor is heard
3. Capability: Capability of this neighboring device – R for router, S for switch, H for Host etc.
4. Platform: Which type of device the neighbor is. (2500 router or anything else)
5. Port ID: The interface of the remote neighbor you receive CDP information
6. Holdtime: Decremental hold time in seconds

Q12. You want to verify the encapsulation type being used at Data Link layer for interface s0. Which command can you use?

A. Sh ip protocol

B. sh int s0

C. sh ip interface

D. sh processes

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

“sh int ” is a very useful command. It displays the following information:
1. Hardware address
2. Status of interface and the line protocol – carrier detect brings up the serial port(which means that physical layer connections are working) and keep alive bring up the line protocol (which means that Data link layer protocol is working)..
3. MTU, BW, DLY, rely, and load metrics.
4. Encapsulation type (layer 2, Data link layer) – HDLC is the default.

Q13. You want to run 802.2 frame type on your Ethernet interface. Which encapsulation type has to be chosen?

A. Ethernet_II

B. 802.2

C. SAP

D. SNAP

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

There are four different Ethernet framing types. Although several encapsulation types can share the same interface, clients and servers with different types cannot communicate without a router.

1. Ethernet_802.3 – The default for NetWare versions 2.x through 3.11. This is also the default for Cisco routers. Cisco refers to this as Novell-ether.

2. Ethernet_802.2 – The default for NetWare 3.12 and later versions. Cisco refers to this as SAP.

3. Ethernet_II – This is also used with TCP/IP and DECnet. Cisco refers to this as ARPA.

4. Ethernet_SNAP – This is also used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk. Cisco refers to this as SNAP.

Q14. What does -1 signify in an extended IPX access list?

A. permit this host

B. deny this host

C. permit only this subnet

D. any host or any network

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

-1 is used with IPX access lists to specify wildcard networks. This is same as using “any” in IP access lists.

Q15. Which command sequence will allow only traffic from network 185.64.0.0 to enter interface s0?

A. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 255.255.0.0
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 out

B. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 255.255.0.0
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 out

C. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 in

D. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 in

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The correct sequence of commands are:
1. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
2. int s0
3. ip access-group 25 in

Q16. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. X

Correct answer: A,B

Explanation:

ISDN uses four different reference points to define logical interfaces:
1. R-reference point: Defines the reference point between non-ISDN compatible devices and a Terminal Adapter (TA).
2. S-reference point: Defines the reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
3. T-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 and NT2.
4. U-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 devices and line-termination equipment in a carrier network.
The flow of reference points are:
[TE2] —R—>[TA]—S/T—>[NT1]—>U—>to carrier
[TE2]—>R—>[TA]—>S—>[NT2]—>T—>[NT2]—>to carrier

Q17. Which is true about VLAN Trunk Protocol? [Select 2].

A. VTP is statically configured and no built in intelligence is available.

B. VTP provides intelligence for configuring switches across the network.

C. VTP is not designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

D. VTP is designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

Correct answer: B, D

Explanation:

VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) is a layer 2 protocol that maintains VLAN configurations through a common administrative domain. Configurations are made to a VTP server, and are propagated across trunk lines to all switches in the VTP domain. VTP provides auto-intelligence for configuring switches across the network.

Q18. Which of the following is a term associated with WAN terminology / is a WAN device? [Select all that apply].

A. Demarc

B. DSU/CSU

C. Modem

D. CPE

Correct answer: A, B, C, D

Explanation:

WANs are connected over serial lines that operate at lower speeds than LANs. Some important WAN terms are:
1. Modems: Modems connect to public telephone circuits through dial-up.
2. CSU/DSU: Stands for Channel Service Unit / Data Service Unit. CSU/DSUs are used for connecting to Central Office of a Telephone switching company and provides serial WAN connections.
3. Multiplexors (mux): Multiplexors combine two or more signals before transmitting on a single channel. Multiplexing can be done by sharing “time” or “frequency”.
4. CPE stands for Customer Premise Equipment.
5. Demarc : Demarcation point between carrier equipment and CPE.

Q19. Which of the following can be used to view the previous command you entered into a Cisco router? [Select 2].

A. CTRL+F1

B. The Down Arrow

C. The Up Arrow

D. CTRL + P

Correct answer: C, D

Explanation:

The following are some important commands that can be used to edit and review command history buffer. It will be useful to practice these commands.
A : Move to the beginning of the command line
E : Move to the end of the command line
F : Move forward one character, same as using “Right Arrow”.
B : Move backward one character, same as using “Left Arrow”.
P : Repeat Previous command, same as using “Up Arrow”.
N : Repeat Next (more recent) command, same as using “Down Arrow”.
B : Moves to beginning of previous word.
F : Moves to beginning of next word.
R : Creates new command prompt, followed by all the characters typed at the last one.

Q20. What is true about static VLANs? [Choose the best answer].

A. The VLAN is configured by a TFTP server.

B. It automatically notify a new network user.

C. The administrator assigns VLAN by port.

D. Static VLAN are more appropriate when the switch fabric becomes more complex.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Static VLANs: The administrator statically configures VLAN port assignment. VLAN memberships on the switch ports are assigned on a port-by-port basis.
Dynamic VLANs: A VMPS (VLAN Management Policy Server) can dynamically assign VLAN ports. The MAC address of the node is used to determine the VLAN assignment. A separate server or a Catalyst 5000 can function as a VMPS server. When a frame arrives on a dynamic port at the switch, it queries the VMPS for the VLAN assignment based on the source MAC address of the arriving frame.

 

Q21: Match the trunking protocols with respective media:

                1. Inter Switch Link    A. FDDI
                2. LANE                    B. Fast Ethernet
                3. 802.10                   C. ATM

Choose the correct choice.             

                   A. 1-> C, 2->B, 3->A

                    B. 1->B, 2->C, 3->A

                    C. 1->B, 2->A, 3->C

                    D. 1->A, 2->B, 3->C

 
 
 
 

                   

Ans:B

Explanation:

ISL, 802.1Q are the VLAN trunking protocols associated with Fast Ethernet. The VLAN trunking protocol defined by 802.10 is associated with FDDI. LANE (LAN Emulation) is associated with ATM.

 

Q22: Your switched network is using Inter-Switch Link (ISL) as VLAN trunking protocol. Which following must be a part of ISL header field?

A. Source Port Number

B.  VLAN-ID

C. Destination port number

D. Destination network number

                                                                                            
 

Ans: B

Explanation:

Inter-Switch Link (ISL) is one of the VLAN trunking protocols used for switched VLAN networks. It uses frame tagging to identify the VLAN. ISL encapsulates the original Ethernet frame, and a VLAN-ID is inserted into the ISL header.

 

Q23: You have configured your network to have 3 VLANs. How many broadcast domains do you have?

                    A. 1

                    B. 2

                    C. 3

                    D. 4

 
 

Ans.: C

Explanation: It is important to know the difference between a collision domain and a broadcast domain. When you use Hubs, all the nodes connected to the hub will be in the same collision domain. However, when you use switches and implement VLANs, each VLAN will be in a separate broadcast domain. The packet forwarding between VLANs is achieved through the use of routing.

 

Q24: Your network has 100 nodes on a single broadcast domain. You have implemented VLANs and segmented the network to have 2 VLANs of 50 nodes each. The resulting broadcast traffic effectively:

            A. Increases two fold

            B. Remains same

            C. Decreases by half

            D. Increases 4 fold

 
  
 
 

Ans: C

Explanation: By implementing VLANs,

1. The effective broadcast traffic decreases, since VLANs do not forward the broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another.

2. The security can be improved by implementing a router (A layer 3 device) to route the packets among VLANs.

 

Q25: Which of the following are valid VLAN Trunk Protocols over Fast Ethernet? [Select 2].

            A. Inter-Switch Link

            B. 802.10

            C. LANE

            D. 802.1Q

 
  
 
 

Ans: A, D

Expl.: Inter-Switch Link and 802.1Q are two VLAN Trunking Protocols used with Fast Ethernet, that Cisco supports. LANE is associated with ATM and 802.10 is associated with FDDI. Also, it is important to note that ISL, 802.1Q, and 802.10 use Frame Tagging to identify the VLANs.

 

 

Q26. Frame Relay DLCIs must be unique in a Frame Relay network.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans.: B

Expl.: DLCI stands for Data-Link Connection Identifier. Frame Relay DLCIs have local significance, which means that the values themselves are not unique in the Frame Relay WAN. DLCIs must be unique on a given access link, i.e. the physical channel on which they reside.

Q27. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. S

Correct answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

ISDN uses four different reference points to define logical interfaces:
1. R-reference point: Defines the reference point between non-ISDN compatible devices and a Terminal Adapter (TA).
2. S-reference point: Defines the reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
3. T-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 and NT2.
4. U-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 devices and line-termination equipment in a carrier network.
The flow of reference points are:
[TE2] —R—>[TA]—S/T—>[NT1]—>U—>to carrier
[TE2]—>R—>[TA]—>S—>[NT2]—>T—>[NT2]—>to carrier

Q28. A frame is received at the destination router over Frame Relay network with FECN bit value set to 1. What does this indicate?

A. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

B. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

C. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

D. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

Ans.: A

Expl.: Frame Relay has two types of congestion notification mechanisms:

FECN: Forward-Explicit Congestion Notification, and

BECN: Backward-Explicit Congestion Notification.

If the network is congested in the direction of source to destination, FR switches set the value of the frames FECN to 1(one). DTE devices may implement flow control based on this information. FR switches set the value of BECN bit to 1 (one) in frames traveling in the opposite direction of frames with their FECN bit set. This will enable to DTE device to initiate appropriate flow control in the direction in which the frame has arrived.

Q29: You have configured VLANs in your switched network and now want to check whether you have configured properly. Which command do you use? Assume that you are in privileged EXEC mode. Select one.

A. sh v-lan

B. sh vlan vlan#

C. sh vlan#

D. sh v-lans v-lan#

Ans.: B

Expl.: You use show vlan or shor vlan vlan# command to see the configuration details of VLANs. The command “sh vlan” will display the configuration information for all VLANs, where as the command “sh vlan vlan#” shows only the configuration information pertaining to that vlan. For example, if you want to see the configuration information for vlan2, you give the command “sh vlan 2″.

Q30: You want to see whether the pruning is enabled in you network or not. Which command can you use to check this?

A. sh version

B. sh spantree

C. sh vtp

D. sh vlan

Ans.: C

Expl.: To verify any configuration change, “show vtp” privileged executive command can be used. This command displays, among other things, VTP domain name, VTP password if any, VTP pruning mode (enabled or disabled) and the IP address of the device that last modified the configuration.

 

————————–

Q31. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
                       
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
                       
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
                       
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
                       
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
                       
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
                        Answer: C
                       
Q32. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
                       
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
                       
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
                       
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
                       
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
                       
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
                        Answer: C, E
Q33. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
                       
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
                       
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
                       
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
                       
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
                       
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
                       
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
                        Answer: B, E
                       
Q34. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
                       
A. 172.16.8.0
                       
B. 172.16.9.0
                       
C. 172.16.16.0
                       
D. 172.16.20.0
                       
E. 172.16.24.0
                       
F. 172.16.31.0
                        Answer: B, D, F
                       
Q35. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
                       
A. static NAT
                       
B. dynamic NAT
                       
C. overloading
                       
D. overlapping
                       
E. port loading
                        Answer: C
                       
Q36. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
                       
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
                       
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
                       
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
                       
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates
                        until their effect on end-user equipment is well known
                        and widely reported.
                       
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic
                        antivirus client updates.
                        Answer: B
                       
Q37. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and
                        installed in the center of a square office. A few
                        wireless users are experiencing slow performance and
                        drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency.
                        What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose
                        three.)
                       
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
                       
B. null SSID
                       
C. cordless phones
                       
D. mismatched SSID
                       
E. metal file cabinets
                       
F. antenna type or direction
                        Answer: C, E, F
                       
Q38. What two actions must a router take in order to route
                        incoming packets? (Choose two.)
                       
A. Identify the destination network address of each
                        packet.
                       
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
                       
C. Validate sources of routing information.
                       
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to
                        the destination network address.
                       
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop
                        router.
                       
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source
                        MAC address for each packet.
                        Answer: A, D
                       
Q39. What are two recommended ways of protecting network
                        device configuration files from outside network security
                        threats? (Choose two.)
                       
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY
ports.
                       
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to
                        the network devices.
                       
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line
                        because its data is automatically encrypted.
                       
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated
                        transport to access device configurations.
                       
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password
                        encryption.
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q40. Which two statements describe the IP address
                        10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
                       
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
                       
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1
                        255.255.254.0.
                       
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is
                        10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
                       
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255
                        255.255.254.0.
                       
E. The network is not subnetted.
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q41. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol
                        that provides the information displayed by the show cdp
                        neighbors command operate?
                       
A. physical
                       
B. data link
                       
C. network
                       
D. transport
                       
E. application
                        Answer: B
                       
Q42. Which of the following describe private IP
                        addresses? (Choose two.)
                       
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the
                        Internet
                       
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public
                        Internet
                       
C. addresses that can be routed through the public
                        Internet
                       
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
                       
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an
                        Internet registry organization
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q43. WAN data link encapsulation types include which of
                        the following? (Choose two.)
                       
A. T1
                       
B. Frame Relay
                       
C. DSL
                       
D. PPP
                       
E. ISDN
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q44. Which of the following are found in a TCP header,
                        but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
                       
A. sequence number
                       
B. acknowledgment number
                      
C. source port
                       
D. destination port
                       
E. window size
                       
F. checksum
                        Answer: A, B, E
                       
Q45. What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
                       
A. 172.16.0.0
                       
B. 172.16.128.0
                       
C. 172.16.156.0
                       
D. 172.16.159.0
                       
E. 172.16.159.128
                       
F. 172.16.192.0
                        Answer: C

 

Q46: Cisco IOS supports MPPC (Microsoft Point-to-Point Compression algorithm) on one of the following encapsulation types. Choose the correct one.

A. HDLC

B. LAPB

C. PPP

D. Frame-Relay

Ans.: C

Compression algorithms supported by Cisco IOS are:

Encapsulation Type Compression type supported by Cisco IOS
HDLC STAC
LAPB STAC, Predictor
PPP STAC, Predictor, MPPC
Frame-Relay STAC, FRF.9

PPP is supported by STAC, Predictor, and MPPC. Compression algorithms supported by Frame-Relay for payload compression are STAC, and FRF.9.

Q47. Which of the following is not an interface associated with a WAN connection?

A. V.35

B. EIA 232

C. EIA 530

D. MSAU

E. X.21

Ans.: D

Expl.:

Typical WAN interfaces, that one come across frequently are:

EIA 232, EIA 449, EIA 530, V.35, and X.21. The Cisco router serial interface will be a 60-pin D-shell connector. This in turn is connected to service provider equipment, usually through a CSU/ DSU. Therefore, appropriate conversion cable need to be used when interfacing with a WAN device such a CSU/DSU. CSU/ DSU in turn is connected to the service provider through the cable supplied by the service provider.

Q48. Your router is connect to the service provider through a CSU/DSU. Choose appropriate interfaces used in correct order, starting from the router interface.

A. 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45

B. 60-pin D-shell connector –> RJ 45 –> EIA/TIA 232

C. RJ 45 –> 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232

D. EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45 –> 60-pin D shell connector

Ans.: A.

Expl.: Traditionally, the router interface on a serial link is a 60-pin D-shell connector. The CSU/DSU may have EIA/TIA 232 interface to the router. The CSU/DSU interface to the service provider could be RJ-11, RJ-45 etc.

Q49. Frame Relay protocol is based on fixed size frame length. In other words, the frame size can not be flexible.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans.: B (False)

Expl. Frame Relay is WAN protocol, that allows multi-access. Frame Relay works on packet-switched technology. Packet switched networks enable end stations to dynamically share the network medium and the available bandwidth. In Frame Relay, variable-length packets are used for more efficient and flexible data transfer.

Q50. Frame Relay supports which of the following?

A. PVCs only

B. SVCs only

C. Both PVCs and SVCs

D. None

Ans.C

Expl.: Frame Relay supports two type of virtual circuits (VCs):

1. Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) _ these are permanently established connection that are used for frequent and consistent data transfers between DTEs across a Frame Relay cloud.

2. Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs) _ these are temporary connections used in situations requiring only occassional data transfers between DTEs across Frame Relay cloud.
The terms “Call Setup”, “Data Transfer”, “Idle”, and “Call Termination” are associated with SVCs. Frame Relay SVCs are not widely supported by manufacturers.

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Free Online Exams

Posted on September 7, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Others, Practice Exam |

Free Exam Q&A

30 Free Q&A from heat-test

Free Exam SoftWare

Howtonetwork.net

Semsim Demo

ExamWorx

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Exam 14 — 15 Question Set

Posted on August 28, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, ICND1 break down Tests | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source

Study Guides:

* The OSI Model
* TCP And UDP
* Ports, Sockets and Port Numbers

 

1 .Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)
• 19
• 20
• 21

• 22

2 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?
• SMTP
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

3 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?
• TFTP
• TCP
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

4 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?
• TCP uses only LAN connections.
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

5 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)
• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys
• sequence numbers
• encryption algorithms
• acknowledgment numbers

6 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?
• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

7 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?
• network
• application
• session
• transport

8 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)
• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams
• connection-oriented
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless

• utilizes sliding windowing techniques

9 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?
• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS
• HTTP
• WWW

10 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?
• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

11 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?
• UDP, connection-oriented
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

12 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?
• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP
• TCP
• DHCP

13 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?
• Application
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

14 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)
• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity
• flow control

• security control
• data representation
• encryption of data

15 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?
• FTP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

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Exam 13 — 25 Question Set

Posted on August 28, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, ICND1 break down Tests, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source

Study Guides:

* Repeaters, Hubs, Bridges, Switches and Routers
MAC address learning and filter/forward decisions

* Intro to the Routing Process
* Routing Process Continued — Behind the “PING”

* Subnetting Basics
* Four common subnetting scenarios

 

1. At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 7

2. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248

3.

9352[1]

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?
• The LAN is being addressed properly.
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

–explain:

/26 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11000000 = 255.255.255.192
1st sub 00000000 172.25.14.1 — 172.25.14.62, broadcast 172.25.14.63
2nd sub 01000000 172.25.14.65 — 172.25.14.125 broadcast 172.25.14.126

3rd sub 10000000 172.25.14.129 — 172.25.14.190 broadcast 172.25.14.191

 

 

 

4.

7920[1]

Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

5. Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?
• static routes
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

6.

10038[1]

Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

7. Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?
• 172.32.65.0
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

8. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

9.9464[1]

Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.

–explain:

255.255.255.240 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11110000 = /28
/27 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11100000
1st subnet 00000000 198.18.166.1 — 198.18.166.30

2nd subnet00100000 198.18.166.33 — 198.18.166.62

3rd subnet 01000000 198.18.166.65 — 198.18.166.93

4th subnet 01100000

5th subnet 10000000

11100000

 

 

 

10.

11330[1]

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network. By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the IP server properties to get connectivity to the network through the router?
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.39
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 92.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.10.1

– Explain:

/29 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111000
1st sub 00000000 192.168.10.1 – 192.168.10.7
2nd sub 00001000 192.168.10.9 – 192.168.10.15

3rd sub 00010000 192.168.10.17 – 192.168.10.23

4th sub 00011000 192.168.10.25 – 192.168.10.31

5th sub 00100000 192.168.10.33 – 192.168.10.38

11111000

network address 00100000 = 32

first available address 32 +1 = 33

broadcast address 0010111 = 39

last available address 39 -1 = 38

 

 

 

 

11. How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?
• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received

12.

8061[1]

Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?
• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

13. What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?
• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

14.

9417[1]

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The default gateway is a network address.
• The default gateway is a broadcast address.
• The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

– Explain:

255.255.255.192 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11000000 = /26
1st sub 00000000 192.168.200.1 — 192.168.200.62, broadcast 192.168.200.63
2nd sub 01000000 192.168.200.65 — 192.168.200.125 broadcast 192.168.200.126

3rd sub 10000000 192.168.200.129 — 192.168.200.190 broadcast 192.168.200.191

 

 

 

15. How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?
• The number of switches must increase.
• The collisions prevent the copying of data.
• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
• The number of host IP addresses is increased.

16.

9418[1]

Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
• The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

17. What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?
• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number.

19. What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?
• to propagate broadcast messages
• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to switch traffic to all available interfaces
• sharing network information between routers

20. Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)
• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.
• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.

• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21. Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?
• interior
• exterior
• static
• dynamic

22. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?
• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62

–Explain:

255.255.255.224 = 11111111 11111111 11111111 11100000
3 bits for subnet section, 5 bits for host section.
avialable hosts per subnet = 2^5 -2 = 30

 

 

 

23. A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

–Explain:

100 networks means at least 100 subnet is needed.
100 < 128 = 2^7
We need to borrow 7 bits from default network mask’s host portion for subnetting.

default network mask: 11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000

subnet mask: 11111111 11111111 11111110 00000000 = 255.255.254.0

 

 

 

24. Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?
• hub
• router
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

25. An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

–Explain:

14 < 16 = 2^4
4 need at least 4 host bits, that leave us 8 – 4 = 4 for subnet portion.
11111111 11111111 11111111 11110000 = 255.255.255.240

 

 

 

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Exam 12 — 20 Question Set

Posted on August 28, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, ICND1 break down Tests, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source

Study Guides:

* The ARP RARP and DHCP Process

* IP Address Classes and Private IP Address Ranges

* The OSI Model
* The TCP/IP Model
* TCP And UDP

1. What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)
• The originating host dynamically issues an arp –a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

2. Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?
• network access layer
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

3. What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?
• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications

4. What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?
• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255

5. Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)
• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.

6.

clip_image001

Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?
• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0
• 225.1.5.0

7. Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?
• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

8. Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 10.45.09.23
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23

9.

clip_image001-2

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information shown, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• An ARP request must be used to obtain an address that is placed in the ARP table.
• Frames from other hosts in the network to this host will use a destination address of 00-06-25-25-6e-5d.
• The only remote locations that can be reached from this host are 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254.
• If a packet is sent to a network device other than 192.168.1.97 and 192.168.1.254, an ARP request must be used.
• If the computer with the IP address of 192.168.1.94 sends a packet to the device with the IP address 192.168.1.97, no ARP request is required.

10.

clip_image001-3

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?
• PC1 and PC2
• all servers
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

11. Why were private IP addresses developed?
• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses

12. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

13. When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

14.

clip_image001-4

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?
• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

15. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?
• 254
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

16. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?
• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

17. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

18. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?
• Class A
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E

19. What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?
• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts
• to assign a MAC address to a host

20.

11600[1]

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)
• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.
• The host received the IP address from the router on the local LAN segment.
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.

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Exam 11 — 15 Question Set

Posted on August 28, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, ICND1 break down Tests, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source

Study Guides:

* Repeaters, Hubs, Bridges, Switches and Routers
MAC address learning and filter/forward decisions

1. What is characteristic of the operation of a Layer 2 switch?
• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• uses the destination MAC address to determine the specific interface to forward a frame

2. Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)
• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.

• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

3.

9612[1]

Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?
• Replace the hub with a switch.
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

4.

8836[1]

Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?
• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

5.

9237[1]

Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

6. An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?
• hub
• router
• switch
• repeater

7. Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• bridge
• hub
• switch

• repeater

8. Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)
switch
• repeater
• router
• bridge

• hub

9. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
• NIC
• hub
• switch
• router
repeater

10.

5954[1]

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?
• 1
• 2
• 5
• 12
• 13
• 15

11. A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?
• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

12. A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?
• bridge
• hub
• router
• transceiver

13. What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?
• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port

14. Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
• hub
• Layer 2 switch
• router
• bridge
• repeater

15. What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?
• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol

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