CCNA Practice Exam 1– 50 Question Set

Posted on September 8, 2009. Filed under: CCNA |

Exam Answer and Explainations

Q1. Which of the following is Class C IP address?





Q2. You have an IP of with a subnet mask of 7 bits. How many hosts and subnets are possible?

A. 126 hosts and 510 subnets

B. 128 subnets and 512 hosts

C. 510 hosts and 126 subnets

D. 512 subnets and 128 hosts

Q3. Two sub layers of OSI Data Link layer are which of the following? [Select 2].

A. Logical Link Control

B. Data Link Control

C. Media Access Control

D. Physical Layer Control

Q4. Match the following:

A. Repeaters 1. Data Link Layer

B. Bridges 2. Network Layer

C. Routers 3. Physical Layer

Select the best combination:

A. A —>2, B—>3, C—>1

B. A—>3, B—->1, C—->2

C. A—>3,B—–>2, C—->1

D. A—->1, B—->2, C—->3

Q5. Which of the following are session layer standards? [Select 2].





Q6. Match the corresponding layers of ISO and DoD models?

DoD Model ISO OSI Model

A. Process/Application 1. Application

B. Host-to-Host 2. Presentation

C. Internet 3. Session

D. Network Access 4. Transport

5. Network

6. Data Link

7. Physical

Choose best choice:

A. A->1+2; B->3+4; C->5; D->6+7

B. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5; D->6+7

C. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5+6; D->7

D. A->1+2+3; B->4+5; C->6; D->7

Q7. What is the command used to add a banner to a Cisco router configuration?

A. add banner

B. banner motd #

C. motd banner #

D. add banner #

Q8. What is the default administrative distance for RIP?

A. 100

B. 120

C. 0

D. 200

Q9. The Cisco Catalyst 1900 switches support which three LAN switch types? [Select 3].

A. Store-and-Forward

B. FragmentFree

C. InstaSwitch

D. FastForward

Q10. Which is true regarding VLANs?

A. VLAN technology uses VLAN switches (layer 2) which is a substitute for routing technology which uses routers.

B. A VLAN has same collision domain

C. A VLAN has same broadcast domain

D. VLANs are less secure with respect to simple switch or Hub networks.

Q11. Your internet work consists entirely of Cisco devices. You have given a command “show cdp neighbors”. In the response, you get “S” under the head “Capability”. What does the letter “S” mean?

A. It means “Source Route Bridge”

B. It means “Host”

C. It means “Switch”

D. It means “Static”

Q12. You want to verify the encapsulation type being used at Data Link layer for interface s0. Which command can you use?

A. Sh ip protocol

B. sh int s0

C. sh ip interface

D. sh processes

Q13. You want to run 802.2 frame type on your Ethernet interface. Which encapsulation type has to be chosen?

A. Ethernet_II

B. 802.2



Q14. What does -1 signify in an extended IPX access list?

A. permit this host

B. deny this host

C. permit only this subnet

D. any host or any network

Q15. Which command sequence will allow only traffic from network to enter interface s0?

A. access-list 25 permit
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 out

B. access-list 25 permit
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 out

C. access-list 25 permit
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 in

D. access-list 25 permit
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 in

Q16. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. X

Q17. Which is true about VLAN Trunk Protocol? [Select 2].

A. VTP is statically configured and no built in intelligence is available.

B. VTP provides intelligence for configuring switches across the network.

C. VTP is not designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

D. VTP is designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

Q18. Which of the following is a term associated with WAN terminology / is a WAN device? [Select all that apply].

A. Demarc


C. Modem


Q19. Which of the following can be used to view the previous command you entered into a Cisco router? [Select 2].


B. The Down Arrow

C. The Up Arrow


Q20. What is true about static VLANs? [Choose the best answer].

A. The VLAN is configured by a TFTP server.

B. It automatically notify a new network user.

C. The administrator assigns VLAN by port.

D. Static VLAN are more appropriate when the switch fabric becomes more complex.


Q21: Match the trunking protocols with respective media:

                1. Inter Switch Link    A. FDDI
                2. LANE                    B. Fast Ethernet
                3. 802.10                   C. ATM

Choose the correct choice.             

                   A. 1-> C, 2->B, 3->A

                    B. 1->B, 2->C, 3->A

                    C. 1->B, 2->A, 3->C

                    D. 1->A, 2->B, 3->C


Q22: Your switched network is using Inter-Switch Link (ISL) as VLAN trunking protocol. Which following must be a part of ISL header field?

A. Source Port Number


C. Destination port number

D. Destination network number

Q23: You have configured your network to have 3 VLANs. How many broadcast domains do you have?

                    A. 1

                    B. 2

                    C. 3

                    D. 4



Q24: Your network has 100 nodes on a single broadcast domain. You have implemented VLANs and segmented the network to have 2 VLANs of 50 nodes each. The resulting broadcast traffic effectively:

            A. Increases two fold

            B. Remains same

            C. Decreases by half

            D. Increases 4 fold



Q25: Which of the following are valid VLAN Trunk Protocols over Fast Ethernet? [Select 2].

            A. Inter-Switch Link

            B. 802.10

            C. LANE

            D. 802.1Q

 Q26. Frame Relay DLCIs must be unique in a Frame Relay network.



Q27. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. S

Q28. A frame is received at the destination router over Frame Relay network with FECN bit value set to 1. What does this indicate?

A. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

B. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

C. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

D. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.



Q29: You have configured VLANs in your switched network and now want to check whether you have configured properly. Which command do you use? Assume that you are in privileged EXEC mode. Select one.

                A. sh v-lan

                B. sh vlan vlan#

                C. sh vlan#

                D. sh v-lans v-lan#



Q30: You want to see whether the pruning is enabled in you network or not. Which command can you use to check this?

                A. sh version

                B. sh spantree

                C. sh vtp

                D. sh vlan


Q31. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Q32. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Q33. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Q34. Assuming a subnet mask of, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
Q35. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Q36. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates
                        until their effect on end-user equipment is well known
                        and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic
                        antivirus client updates.
Q37. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and
                        installed in the center of a square office. A few
                        wireless users are experiencing slow performance and
                        drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency.
                        What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Q38. What two actions must a router take in order to route
                        incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to
                        the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source
                        MAC address for each packet.
Q39. What are two recommended ways of protecting network
                        device configuration files from outside network security
                        threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to
                        the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line
                        because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated
                        transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password
Q40. Which two statements describe the IP address
               (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is
E. The network is not subnetted.
Q41. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol
                        that provides the information displayed by the show cdp
                        neighbors command operate?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Q42. Which of the following describe private IP
                        addresses? (Choose two.)
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public
C. addresses that can be routed through the public
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an
                        Internet registry organization
Q43. WAN data link encapsulation types include which of
                        the following? (Choose two.)
A. T1
B. Frame Relay
Q44. Which of the following are found in a TCP header,
                        but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
A. sequence number
B. acknowledgment number
C. source port
D. destination port
E. window size
F. checksum
Q45. What is the subnet address of


Q46: Cisco IOS supports MPPC (Microsoft Point-to-Point Compression algorithm) on one of the following encapsulation types. Choose the correct one.




D. Frame-Relay

Q47. Which of the following is not an interface associated with a WAN connection?

A. V.35

B. EIA 232

C. EIA 530


E. X.21

Q48. Your router is connect to the service provider through a CSU/DSU. Choose appropriate interfaces used in correct order, starting from the router interface.

A. 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45

B. 60-pin D-shell connector –> RJ 45 –> EIA/TIA 232

C. RJ 45 –> 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232

D. EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45 –> 60-pin D shell connector

Q49. Frame Relay protocol is based on fixed size frame length. In other words, the frame size can not be flexible.



Q50. Frame Relay supports which of the following?

A. PVCs only

B. SVCs only

C. Both PVCs and SVCs

D. None


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