Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules

Answers for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions-Module 6

Posted on August 24, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules | Tags: , , , |

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  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
1. Which two statements are true of CDP? (Choose two.)
CDP is a proprietary protocol.          
  CDP is an open protocol standard.          
CDP discovers information about directly connected Cisco devices.          
  CDP discovers information about all devices on the network.          
  CDP runs over the network layer.          
2. How could you obtain CDP information about a remote device that is not directly connected?
  Use the command show cdp neighbors’ address.          
  Use the command show cdp neighbors’ hostname.          
  Use the command show cdp neighbors’ next-hop.          
It is not possible to obtain CDP information about a remote device.          
3. Which two pieces of information are included in a CDP update packet? (Choose two.)
platform          
  routing updates          
device identifiers          
  MAC Address list          
  link speed          
4. Which command disables CDP on the device as a whole?
  no run cdp          
no cdp run          
  no cdp enable          
  no cdp execute          
5. What does the command cdp enable do?
  disables CDP on a specific interface          
  enables CDP on the device as a whole          
enables CDP on an individual interface          
  enables CDP on a specific type of interface          
6. Which Cisco IOS command produces the same result as the show cdp neighbors detail command?
  show cdp traffic          
show cdp entry *          
  show cdp neighbors          
  show cdp interface all          
7. What keyword do you add to the show cdp neighbors command to obtain additional information in the output?
  full          
detail          
  verbose          
  complete          
8. Which Cisco IOS command displays the frequency at which packets are sent?
  show cdp entry          
  show cdp traffic          
show cdp interface          
  show cdp neighbors          
9. What information is included in the output of the command show cdp interface?
  remote port ID          
  remote device ID          
encapsulation type          
  number of CDP packets sent          
10. Which command displays the device platform of a directly connected device?
show cdp entry *          
  show cdp traffic          
  show cdp interface          
  show cdp platform          
11. Which command displays CDP packet checksum errors?
  show cdp entry          
show cdp traffic          
  show cdp interface          
  show cdp neighbors          
12. Which three statements identify the primary uses of a network map? (Choose three.)
tracks modifications to network design          
  creates a software inventory          
tracks changes to the topology          
troubleshoots network problems          
  tracks changes in protocol configurations          
  implements new configurations          
13. Which stage during a Cisco router bootup occurs last?
  POST          
  find and load IOS          
  find and load bootstrap          
find and load configuration          
14. Which stage of the Cisco router bootup process verifies that all router components are operational?
POST          
  find IOS          
  find bootstrap          
  find configuration          
15. Which Cisco router component is used primarily to store the startup-config file?
  RAM          
  ROM          
NVRAM          
  flash memory          
  configuration register          
16. Which of the following is a low-level operating system normally used for manufacturing testing and troubleshooting?
  POST          
  bootstrap          
  mini IOS          
ROMMON          
17. During the Cisco router bootup process, what does the router do if the boot field value is 0x2?
  runs ROM Monitor          
  loads IOS image from flash memory          
  loads IOS image subset from ROM          
checks the startup-config file for boot system commands          
18. What happens if the router cannot find a valid startup configuration file in NVRAM during router bootup?
The router enters setup mode          
  The router attempts to restart.          
  The router runs ROM monitor          
  The router performs a shutdown.          
19. On most routers, the Cisco IOS software is loaded into _____ to run, but on some routers, it is run directly from _____.
  RAM, NVRAM          
RAM, flash memory          
  Flash memory; RAM          
  NVRAM, flash memory          
20. The command show startup-config displays the configuration in what location?
  ROM          
  RAM          
NVRAM          
  flash memory          
21. Which bits of the configuration register value make up the boot field?
  lowest octet          
  highest octet          
lowest 4 bits          
  highest 4 bits          
22. Which Cisco IOS command is used to download a copy of the IOS image file from a TFTP server?
  copy IOS tftp          
copy tftp flash          
  copy flash tftp          
  backup flash tftp          
23. Given the system image file c2600-js-mz.122-21a.bin, which part of the name indicates the platform?
  mz          
  js          
  122-21a          
c2600          
24. Which Cisco IOS command displays the amount of memory that is available where the IOS image is stored on your router?
show flash          
  show nvram          
  show memory          
  show running-config          
25. Where is the running configuration of the router usually stored?
  BIOS          
RAM          
  NVRAM          
  bootflash          
26. Which Cisco IOS command merges a configuration file from NVRAM into the configuration in RAM?
copy startup running          
  copy running-config tftp          
  copy startup-config RAM          
  copy NVRAM running-config          
27. What does the copy tftp startup command do?
  copies the configuration in NVRAM to a TFTP server          
  downloads a configuration file from a TFTP file to RAM          
downloads a configuration file from a TFTP server to NVRAM          
  merges the configuration in RAM with the configuration file on a TFTP server          
28. When you copy a configuration from another source into RAM, what happens to the previous configuration?
  It is overwritten.          
  It is retained in its current state.          
  It is merged with the new configuration, with the existing configuration taking precedence.          
It is merged with the new configuration, with the new configuration taking precedence.          
29. You should use debug commands to _____ problems, not to monitor normal network operation.
  test          
  repair          
isolate          
  duplicate          
30. Why must you be careful when using debug commands?
  They are destructive.          
  They open up security holes.          
  They prevent normal traffic processing.          
They can have a negative impact on performance.          
31. Which Cisco IOS command will add a time stamp to a debug or log message?
  timestamps debug          
  debug timestamps          
service timestamps          
  service debug timestamps          
32. Which action can lead to software reload on a Cisco device?
  disabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a heavily used production router          
enabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a heavily used production router          
  enabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a lightly used production router          
  disabling a debug privileged EXEC command on a lightly used production router          
33. Which Cisco IOS command will enable a Telnet session to receive console messages?
terminal monitor          
  terminal debug monitor          
  terminal debug messages          
  terminal console messages          
34. It is best to use debug commands during periods of _____ network traffic and _____ users.
  lower, more          
lower, fewer          
  higher, more          
  higher, fewer          
35. On a heavily used production router, enabling a debug privileged EXEC command can be _____.
  useful          
  helpful          
harmful          
  duplicate          
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Answers for IInterconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions – Module 5

Posted on August 23, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

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answer   Correct answer
  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
1. Which three statements accurately describe WANs? (Choose three.)
  The companies in which WANs are implemented usually own them.          
WANs connect devices that are separated by wide geographic areas.          
WANs use the services of carriers such as telephone companies, cable companies, satellite systems, and network providers.          
  WANs generally carry limited types of data at high speeds.          
WANs use serial connections of various types to provide access to bandwidth.          
  WANs connect devices that are in a small geographic area.          
2. Which three communications needs do WANs address? (Choose three.)
  Workers in a small business need to be able to communicate and share data with each other.          
  Administrative staff within a school needs to share schedule information with the teachers.          
Organizations often want to share information with other organizations across large distances.          
A department needs to share data files with a remote department          
Students need to do research for classes by accessing library indexes and publications located in other parts of their country and in other parts of the world.          
  Workers within a branch of a large company need to share project data with each other.          
3. Which two statements accurately describe the difference between LANs and WANs? (Choose two.)
  A WAN transmits data faster than a LAN.          
A LAN transmits data faster than a WAN.          
While a LAN connects computers, peripherals, and other devices in a single building or other small geographic area, a WAN transmits data across broad geographic distances.          
  A company or organization usually owns the hardware and software required for WANs.          
  LANs span large geographic areas if a LAN administrator configures them correctly.          
4. At which OSI level do WAN protocols describe how to provide electrical, mechanical, operational, and functional connections to the services of a communications service provider?
Layer 1          
  Layer 2          
  Layer 3          
  Layer 4          
5. At which OSI level do WAN protocols define encapsulation of data for transmission toward a remote location and the mechanisms for transferring the resulting frames?
  Layer 1          
Layer 2          
  Layer 3          
  Layer 4          
6a. In analog lines, they convert the digital signal of the sending device into analog format for transmission over an analog line and then convert the signal back to digital form so that the receiving device can receive and process the network signal.
  Routers          
  Communication servers          
Modems (DSU/CSU)          
  Other networking devices          
6b. They concentrate dial-in and dial-out user communications.
  Routers          
Communication servers          
  Modems (DSU/CSU)          
  Other networking devices          
6c. They provide internetworking and WAN access interface ports.
Routers          
  Communication servers          
  Modems (DSU/CSU)          
  Other networking devices          
6d. WANs use these to provide access.
  Routers          
  Communication servers          
  Modems (DSU/CSU)          
Other networking devices          
7a. Allow the router to connect to the LAN media through Ethernet or some other LAN technology such as Token Ring or ATM
  Management ports          
LAN interfaces          
  WAN interfaces          
7b. Are made through a WAN interface on a router to a service provider to a distant site or to the Internet
  Management ports          
  LAN interfaces          
WAN interfaces          
7c. Provide a text-based connection for the configuration and troubleshooting of the router
Management ports          
  LAN interfaces          
  WAN interfaces          
8. Which two statements accurately describe data-link protocols in a WAN? (Choose two.)
Many data link layer protocols use a framing mechanism similar to HDLC.          
  Data link layer protocols determine the cable type to be used in the WAN.          
  ICMP is an example of a data-link protocol.          
Data link layer protocols define how data is encapsulated for transmission to remote sites, and also the mechanisms for transferring the resulting frames to establish the connection across the communication line from the sending to the receiving device.          
  RIP is an example of a data-link protocol.          
9a. Creates and combines multiple channels on a single line. Bandwidth is allocated for information from each data channel based on the signal frequency of the traffic.
  Time-division multiplexing          
Frequency-division multiplexing          
  Statistical multiplexing          
9b. Information from each data channel is allocated bandwidth based on short, preassigned time slots, regardless of whether there is data to transmit.
Time-division multiplexing          
  Frequency-division multiplexing          
  Statistical multiplexing          
9c. Bandwidth dynamically allocates to any data channel that transmits information.
  Time-division multiplexing          
  Frequency-division multiplexing          
Statistical multiplexing          
10a. Transmits data in labeled cells, frames, or packets
  Dedicated communication links          
  Circuit-switched communication links          
Packet-switched communication links          
10b. Provides a preestablished WAN communications path from the customer premises through the provider network to a remote destination
Dedicated communication links          
  Circuit-switched communication links          
  Packet-switched communication links          
10c. Dynamically establishes a dedicated virtual connection for voice or data between a sender and receiver
  Dedicated communication links          
Circuit-switched communication links          
  Packet-switched communication links          
11. Which three statements accurately describe the functions of a packet-switching WAN communication link? (Choose three.)
  Packet switching is a communication method in which users have a dedicated path between source and destination endpoints.          
The route that the packets take to reach the destination site will vary.          
Packet-switched networks send data packets over different routes of a shared public network owned by a carrier to reach the same destination.          
  In a packet-switching network, each customer uses the full bandwidth on its virtual circuit.          
  The 3PSTN uses packet switching.          
The cost to the customer is generally lower than with point-to-point leased lines.          
12. Which three statements accurately describe DSL? (Choose three.)
  An ISP is not required to connect enterprise users through DSL.          
  Current DSL technologies are using sophisticated coding and modulation techniques to achieve data rates of up to 10 Mbps.          
  A subscriber can connect to a DSL enterprise network directly.          
DSL technology is a circuit-switched connection technology that uses existing twisted-pair telephone lines to transport high-bandwidth data, such as multimedia and video, to service subscribers.          
DSL technology allows use of the local-loop line for normal telephone voice connection and an always-on connection for instant network connectivity.          
DSL technologies place upload (upstream) and download (downstream) data transmissions at frequencies above this 4-kHz window, allowing both voice and data transmissions to occur simultaneously on a DSL service.          
13. Which two of the following are types of DSL? (Choose two.)
ADSL          
IDSL          
  LDSL          
  D-lite          
  GDSL          
14. Which three statements are considerations for DSL? (Choose three.)
  DSL is not backward compatible with analog voice connections.          
DSL service can be incrementally added in any area.          
  Most DSL service offerings currently require the customer to be within 10,000 feet of the CO location of the provider.          
DSL has distance limitations.          
  Upstream (upload) speed is usually faster than the downstream (download) speed.          
DSL is not universally available in all geographic locations.          
15. Which two statements accurately describe cable connections? (Choose two.)
  Originally, cable was a one-directional medium designed to carry broadcast digital video channels to the customers (or subscribers).          
  Some cable service providers promise data speeds of up to 20 times that of T1 leased lines.          
Cable modems enable two-way, high-speed data transmissions using the same coaxial lines that transmit cable television.          
Cable modem access provides speeds superior to leased lines, with lower costs and simpler installation.          
  Cable modems use the telephone system infrastructure, so there are local-loop charges.          
16. Which three statements accurately describe the history of the Internet? (Choose three.)
  The 1993 release of a graphical, easy-to-use browser called Navigator popularized the web.          
U.S. Department of Defense researchers devised a way to break messages into parts, sending each part separately to its destination, where reassembly of the message would take place. Today, this method of data transmission is known as a packet system          
  The University of Southern California installed the first computer on the packet system developed by the Department of Defense.          
  The origin of what has become the Internet began with a need at the Department of Defense for an inventory management network that linked several of their computing facilities around the country.          
In 1972, ARPANET developers created the first e-mail messaging software to more easily communicate and coordinate projects          
In 1984, DNS was introduced and gave the world domain suffixes (such as .edu, .com, .gov, and .org) and a series of country codes.          
17a. Set of networks subject to translation using NAT
  Static NAT          
  Dynamic NAT          
Inside network          
  Outside global IP address          
17b. IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network (the translated IP address)
  Static NAT          
  Dynamic NAT          
  Inside network          
Inside Global          
17c. Form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address on a one-to-one basis
Static NAT          
  Dynamic NAT          
  Inside network          
  Outside global IP address          
17d. Form of NAT that maps an unregistered IP address to a registered IP address from a group of registered IP addresses
  Static NAT          
Dynamic NAT          
  Inside network          
  Outside global IP address          
18. When configuring NAT, what determines the number of simultaneous NAT translations that can be active?
  the size of the NAT memory queue          
the number of addresses in the NAT pool          
  the number of unused TCP port numbers          
  the ratio between the number of UDP and TCP sessions          
19. The output of which command displays the active translations for a NAT translation table?
  show ip nat statistics          
show ip nat translations          
  clear ip nat translation *          
  clear ip nat translation outside          
20. Which statement most accurately describes static and dynamic routes?
  Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.          
Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, whereas dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.          
  Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.          
  Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, whereas static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.          
21. What does the command ip route 186.157.5.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.3specify?
  Both 186.157.5.0 and 10.1.1.3 use a mask of 255.255.255.0.          
  The router should use network 186.157.5.0 to get to address 10.1.1.3.          
  You want the router to trace a route to network 186.157.5.0 via 10.1.1.3.          
The router should use address 10.1.1.3 to get to devices on network 186.157.5.0.          
22. Which command displays information about static route configuration on a Cisco router?
  show route ip          
  show static route          
show ip route static          
  show route ip static          
23. In which situation is an administrative distance required?
  whenever static routes are defined          
  whenever dynamic routing is enabled          
when the same route is learned via multiple routing protocols          
  when multiple paths are available to the same destination and they are all learned via the same routing protocol          
24. Which two statements accurately describe the characteristics and functions of circuit-switched networks? (Choose two.)
With circuit switching, a dedicated physical circuit is established, maintained, and terminated through a carrier network for each communication session.          
Circuit switching allows multiple sites to connect to the switched network of a carrier and communicate with each other.          
  With circuit switching, communication links can accommodate only two sites on a single connection.          
  ATM is an example of circuit-switching technology.          
  Frame Relay is an example of circuit-switched technology.          
25. Which three statements describe considerations for PSTN as a communications link? (Choose three.)
Other than a modem, no additional equipment is required.          
  The transmission rate for large data files is fast.          
The cost associated with the implementation of a PSTN connection link for a WAN is relatively low.          
The maintenance of a public telephone network is very high quality with few instances in which lines are not available.          
  The time required to connect through the WAN is fast.          
  There are no limitations on the signal rate in a PSTN connection.          
26. Which three statements accurately describe a point-to-point communication link? (Choose three.)
A point-to-point (or serial) communication link provides a single, preestablished WAN communications path from the customer premises through a carrier network, such as a telephone company, to a remote network.          
Carriers usually lease out point-to-point lines. This is why point-to-point lines are often called leased lines.          
  A point-to-point (or serial) line usually connects two relatively close sites.          
For a point-to-point line, the carrier dedicates fixed transport capacity and facility hardware to the line of a customer.          
  The purpose of a DSU/CSU in a point-to-point communication link is to ensure reliable delivery of data packets over the connection.          
  Multiplexing technologies are not used in point-to-point communications.          
27. Which three statements accurately describe bandwidth available for WAN connections? (Choose three.)
In North America, bandwidth is usually expressed as a “DS” number (DS0, DS1, and so forth) that technically refers to the rate and format of the signal.          
  To get a DS1 line (also called a T1 line), 12 DS0s can be bundled to achieve a total speed of 1.544 Mbps.          
The bandwidth on a serial connection can be incrementally increased to accommodate the need for faster transmission.          
  The most fundamental line speed is 1.544 Mbps (DS1), which is the bandwidth required for an uncompressed, digitized phone call.          
  Optical networks use a bandwidth hierarchy, which again differs between North America and Europe. In Europe, the OC defines the bandwidth points, and in North America, the SDH defines the bandwidth points.          
Bandwidth refers to the rate at which data is transferred over the communication link.          
28. Which two statements describe the functions of HDLC? (Choose two.)
HDLC includes support for both point-to-point and multipoint configurations.          
  HDLC includes a method for authentication.          
  HDLC is compatible between devices from different vendors.          
HDLC specifies an encapsulation method for data on synchronous serial data links using frame character and checksum.          
  HDLC supports only multipoint configurations.          
  The Cisco implementation of HDLC includes windowing and flow control.          
29. Which three statements describe the function of PPP? (Choose three.)
  The authentication phase of a PPP session is required.          
  PPP provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over asynchronous circuits.          
PPP originally emerged as an encapsulation protocol for transporting IP traffic over point-to-point links.          
  PPP established a standard for the management of TCP sessions.          
PPP provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous and asynchronous circuits.          
The LCP in PPP is used for establishment, configuration, and testing the data-link connection.          
30. Which three statements describe considerations for point-to-point communication links? (Choose three.)
Point-to-point communication links require minimal expertise to install and maintain.          
Point-to-point communication links usually offer a high quality of service.          
Point-to-point communication links provide permanent, dedicated capacity that is always available.          
  With leased lines, the bandwidth of the line is usually what is needed for communication.          
  Point-to-point communication links are available on a shared basis.          
  In point-to-point communication links, endpoints share the interfaces on the router, which decreases equipment costs.          
31. Which command enables HDLC?
  Router (config)# hdlc encapsulation          
  Router (config)# encapsulation hdlc          
  Router (config-if)# hdlc encapsulation          
Router (config-if)# encapsulation hdlc          
32. How does the Cisco-proprietary HDLC make it possible for multiple network layer protocols to share the same serial link?
It adds a new type field.          
  It subdivides the control field.          
  It provides for additional values in the FCS field.          
  It includes protocol information with the data field.          
33. In what Cisco CLI mode do you enter the command to specify PPP authentication?
  user mode          
  ROM monitor mode          
  global configuration mode          
interface configuration mode          
34. What does the ppp authentication chap pap command configure?
  CHAP authentication will always be used.          
  Either CHAP or PAP will be used, selected at random for security.          
  CHAP authentication will be used unless the remote router requests PAP.          
If authentication fails using CHAP, then PAP authentication is attempted.          
35. Which output from the show interface command indicates that PPP is configured properly?
  Encaps = PPP          
  PPP encapsulation          
Encapsulation PPP          
  Encapsulation HDLC using PPP          
36. Which three statements properly describe Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
  Frame Relay works at the application layer.          
The connection to the network edge is often a leased line but dial-up connections are available from some providers using ISDN or xDSL lines.          
Frame Relay implements no error or flow control.          
  Available data rates for Frame Relay are commonly up to 10 Mbps.          
  Most Frame Relay connections are SVCs rather than PVCs.          
Frame Relay provides both PVC and SVC service using shared medium-bandwidth connectivity that carries both voice and data traffic.          
37. Which three statements accurately describe ATM? (Choose three.)
ATM is implemented by using virtual circuits.          
  An ATM network is comprised of ATM routers, which are responsible for forwarding cells and packets.          
Virtual circuits provide a bidirectional communications path from one ATM endpoint to another.          
  An ATM virtual circuit is a physical circuit-switched connection created between two computer endpoints across an ATM network.          
  ATM can run over only coaxial cable using DS3.          
ATM is a type of cell-switched connection technology that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data through private and public networks.          
38. How does a distance vector router learn about paths for networks that are not directly connected?
  from the source router          
from neighboring routers          
  from the destination router          
  distance vector router learns only about directly connected networks          
39. What does a distance vector router send to its neighboring routers as part of a periodic routing table update?
the entire routing table          
  information about new routes          
  information about routes that have changed          
  information about routes that no longer exist          
40. What is the maximum allowable hop count for RIP?
  6          
15          
  30          
  60          
41. With RIP, load balancing is performed over multiple paths that have which characteristic?
equal cost          
  equal weight          
  equal distance          
  equal bandwidth          
42. Which command correctly specifies RIP as the routing protocol?
  Router(config)#rip          
Router(config)#router rip          
  Router(config-router)#rip {AS no.}          
  Router(config-router)#router rip {AS no.}          
43. What is the default value of the RIP holddown timer?
  30 seconds          
  60 seconds          
  90 seconds          
180 seconds          
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Answers for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions-Module 4

Posted on August 21, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

 

Exam Source

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answer   Correct answer
  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
 1. Which three of the following components are common to routers, switches, and computers? (Choose 3)
RAM           
CPU           
motherboard           
  keyboard           
 2. Which two types of ports do routers have? (Choose 2.)
  printer           
console           
network           
  CD-ROM           
  USB           
 3. Which two statements best describe the functions of a router in a network? (Choose 2.)
Routers maintain their routing tables and ensure that other routers know of changes in the network.            
Routers use the routing table to determine where to forward packets.            
  Routers strengthen the signal over large distances in a network.           
  Routers create larger collision domains.           
  Routers use ICMP to communicate network information from the router’s own routing table with other routers.           
 4. Which three of the following statements about the path determination process are accurate? (Choose 3.)
Routers evaluate the available paths to a destination           
The routing process uses metrics and administrative distances when evaluating network paths.           
  Dynamic routing occurs when the network administrator configures information on each router.           
Dynamic routing occurs when information is learned using routing information that is obtained from routing protocols.           
  A default route holds an explicit route to every network.           
  The routing table holds multiple entries per network           
 5a. The router de-encapsulates the frame and uses the protocol information of the frame to determine that the network layer packet will pass to the IP process.
  Step 1           
Step 2           
  Step 3           
  Step 4           
  Step 5           
 5b. If the destination network is on a directly attached network, the router will use the ARP process to obtain the MAC address of the host and forward it to the network segment. If the network is reachable through another router, the router will use the MAC address of the next-hop router and forward the packet out the interface indicated in the routing table.
  Step 1           
  Step 2           
  Step 3           
Step 4           
  Step 5           
 5c. The router checks the destination address in the IP header. Either the packet is destined for the router itself or it needs to be forwarded. If the packet needs to be forwarded, the router searches its routing table to determine where to send the packet.
  Step 1           
  Step 2           
Step 3           
  Step 4           
  Step 5           
 5d. The outgoing interface process encapsulates the packet appropriately to the media and sends the packet onto the network segment.
  Step 1           
  Step 2           
  Step 3           
  Step 4           
Step 5           
 5e. The router receives a packet on one of its interfaces.
Step 1           
  Step 2           
  Step 3           
  Step 4           
  Step 5           
 6. Which of the following contains routing information that helps a router in determining the routing path?
  IP Address           
  MAC Address           
routing table           
  routing protocol           
 7. Which three of the following statements describe the function of routing tables? (Choose 3.)
Routing tables provide an ordered list of known network addresses.           
  Routing tables are maintained through the transmission of MAC addresses.            
Routing tables contain metrics that are used to determine the desirability of the route.           
Routing table associations tell a router that a particular destination is either directly connected to the router or that it can be reached via another router (the next-hop router) on the way to the final destination.           
  When a router receives an incoming packet, it uses the source address and searches the routing table to find the best path for the data from that source.           
  Although routing protocols vary, routing metrics do not.           
 8a. This entry comes from having interfaces attached to network segments. This entry is obviously the most certain; if the interface fails or is administratively shut down, the entry for that network will be removed from the routing table.
  Static routing           
  Dynamic routing           
  Default route           
Directly connected network           
 8b. This is an optional entry that is used when no explicit path to a destination is found in the routing table. This entry can be manually inserted or be populated from a dynamic routing protocol.
  Static routing           
  Dynamic routing           
Default route           
  Directly connected network           
 8c. These routes are entered manually by a system administrator directly into the configuration of a router.
Static routing           
  Dynamic routing           
  Default route           
  Directly connected network           
 8d. These routes are learned by the router, and the information is responsive to changes in the network so that it is constantly being updated.
  Static routing           
Dynamic routing           
  Default route           
  Directly connected network           
 9. Which three metrics are most commonly used by routing protocols to determine a network path? (Choose 3.)
hop count           
bandwidth           
delay           
  packet length           
  distance           
  quantity           
 10. Which three statements accurately describe a distance vector protocol? (Choose 3.)
  IGRP was developed by Cisco to address the issues associated with routing in medium-size LANs.           
Examples of this protocol include RIP and IGRP.           
This protocol determines the direction and distance to any network in the internetwork.            
  Using this protocol, a router needs to know the entire path to every network segment.           
This process is also known as “routing by rumor.”           
 11. Which three statements accurately describe a link-state routing protocol? (Choose 3.)
  The link-state database is used to calculate the paths with the highest bandwidths on the network.           
Link-state routing protocols respond quickly to network changes.           
  In link-state routing protocols, each router periodically sends messages to the network, listing the routers to which it is directly connected and also information about whether the link to each router is active.           
Link-state routing protocols send periodic updates (link-state refreshes) at long time intervals, approximately once every 30 minutes.            
In link-state routing protocols, every router tries to build its own internal map of the network topology.            
  Link-state routing protocols send periodic updates even if no network changes have occurred.           
 12. All computers function using the _____.
  base-10 system           
  decimal system           
  numeric system           
binary system           
 13. The decimal number 10 converts to the binary number _____.
  10           
1010           
  110           
  1000           
 14. Which of the following binary octets has an LSB of 0? (tip: LSB stands for least significant bit, a fancy name of the right-most bit)
  01100011           
  10100101           
10011010           
  10011001           
 15. IP addresses are represented using _____.
32-bit binary numbers           
  16-bit decimal numbers           
  8-bit binary numbers           
  8 sets of 4-bit decimal numbers           
 16. 2 to the fifth power is _____.
  2 X 5           
  128           
2 multiplied by itself 5 times           
  none of the above           
 17. The decimal number 205 converted into a binary number is _____.
  11011101           
  11001001           
  11000101           
11001101           
 18. The binary equivalent of decimal number 452 is _____.
111000100           
  110000100           
  111001100           
  101000100           
 19. What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11000111?
  218           
199           
  179           
  208           
 20. The binary number 11101000111 converted into a decimal number is _____.
  1183           
  1873           
  1638           
1863           
 21. How many octets does a Class A network have in the host field?
         
           
           
           
 22. What is the practical minimum number of bits that can be borrowed to form a subnet?
         
           
           
           
 23. Using 6 subnet bits, how many usable subnets are created?
  58           
  60           
64           
  66           
 24. How many host addresses can be used in a Class C network?
  253           
254           
  255           
  256           
 25. What is the maximum number of bits that can be borrowed to create a subnet for a Class C network?  (hint: Number of Valid Hosts On A Subnet = (2 to the power of the number fo host bits) – 2, leave 2 bits for host field in order to get 2 hosts per subnet.)
           
           
         
           
 26. A subnet mask tells the router to look at which portions of an IP address?
  mask and host bits           
  host and network bits           
  host and subnet bits           
network and subnet bits           
 27. If a router does not match the appropriate address portions to a number on its routing table, it _____.
  sends the packet back to the sender           
  passes the packet to the next router in the hierarchy           
  adds that number to its table           
discards the packet           
 28. Which of the following subnet masks falls on octet boundaries?
  255.0.0.0           
  255.255.0.0           
  255.255.255.0           
all of the above           
 29. Which two of the following are binary default subnet masks? (Choose 2.)
  11111111.00000000.00000000.00000000           
  11111111.11111111.01000000.00000000           
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000           
  255.255.224.0           
 30. Which part of the IP address 172.17.128.47 does the subnet mask 255.255.0.0 tell the router to look for?
  172.17.128.47           
  172.17.128           
172.17           
  10.172.47           
 31. 255.255.224.0 translates into the binary number _____.
  11111111.00000000.11100000.00000000           
  11111111.11100000.00000000.00000000           
11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000           
  11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000           
 32. To see how many bits you should borrow from the host portion of the network address to give you the number of subnets you need, you should _____.
  subtract the number of subnets you need from the host portion           
  add the bit values from right to left until the total (decimal value) is just greater than the number of subnets you need           
  add the bit values from left to right until the total (decimal value) is just greater than the number of subnets you need           
none of the above           
 33. How should you power up a Cisco router?
  Press the Reset button.           
Turn the power switch to “on.”           
  Connect the fiber cable to another router.           
  Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket.           
 34. When you start a Cisco router, what should you see on the console?
  Cisco IOS debug messages           
  the Diagnostic Console menu           
Cisco IOS software output text           
  a graphical picture showing the real-time status of the LED           
 35. What is the primary purpose of setup mode on a Cisco router?
  to display the current router configuration           
  to complete hardware and interface testing           
to bring up a minimal feature configuration           
  to fully configure a Cisco router for IP routing           
 36. Which statement best describes what the user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure on a Cisco router?
You cannot configure anything; the user mode commands are used to display information.           
  The user EXEC mode allows you to perform global configuration tasks that affect the entire router.            
  The user EXEC mode commands allow you to enter a secret password so that you can configure the router.           
  The user EXEC mode commands allow you to configure interfaces, subinterfaces, lines, and routers.            
 37. Which Cisco IOS command is used to return to user EXEC mode from the privileged EXEC mode?
  exit           
  quit           
disable           
  userexec           
 38a. Provides a list of commands and the arguments associated with a specific command
context-sensitive help           
  console error messages           
  command history buffer           
 38b. Allows recall of long or complex commands or entries for reentry, review, or correction
  context-sensitive help           
  console error messages           
command history buffer           
 38c. Identifies problems with router commands incorrectly entered so that you can alter or correct them
  context-sensitive help           
console error messages           
  command history buffer           
 39. What information does the show running-config command provide on a Cisco router?
current (running) configuration in RAM           
  system hardware and names of configuration files           
  amount of NVRAM used to store the configuration           
  version of Cisco IOS software running on the router           
 40. Which Cisco IOS command displays the configuration of the system hardware and the software information?
show version            
  show interfaces           
  show startup-config           
  show running-config           
 41a. Router(config-if)#
  Line           
  Router           
Interface           
  Controller           
  Subinterface           
 41b. Router(config-line)#
Line           
  Router           
  Interface           
  Controller           
  Subinterface           
 41c. Router(config-subif)#
  Line           
  Router           
  Interface           
  Controller           
Subinterface           
 14d. Router(config-router)#
  Line           
Router           
  Interface           
  Controller           
  Subinterface           
 41e. Router(config-controller)#
  Line           
  Router           
  Interface           
Controller           
  Subinterface           
 42. If you enter a major command on a Cisco router, what happens?
  The router returns you to user EXEC mode.           
  The router returns a list of possible commands.           
  The router invokes a global configuration command.           
The router switches you from one configuration mode to another.           
 43. Which Cisco IOS command creates a message to be displayed upon router login?
  hostname hostname           
banner motd message           
  hostname interface description           
  description interface description           
 44. If both the enable secret and the enable password commands are configured on your router, how do you get to the # prompt?
Enter the enable secret command.           
  Enter the enable password command.           
  Enter either the enable secret or the enable password command.           
  Enter both the enable secret and the enable password commands.           
 45. Which Cisco IOS command will you use to set the console session timeout to 15 minutes and 30 seconds?
  set exec timeout 15 30           
  console timeout 15 30           
  timeout 15 30           
exec-timeout 15 30           
 46. Which Cisco IOS command configures a serial port in slot 0, port 1 on a modular router?
  interface serial 0-0-1           
  interface serial 0 0 1           
interface serial 0/0/1           
  interface serial 0/0-1           
 47. Which Cisco IOS command should you use to set the clock speed to 64 kbps on a serial interface on a Cisco router?
  clock rate 64           
  clock speed 64           
clock rate 64000           
  clock speed 64000           
 48. A serial interface displays “Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.” Which two situations may cause this error? (Choose 2.)
The clock rate has not been set.           
  The interface has been manually disabled.           
  No cable is attached to the serial interface.           
  There are no keepalives.           
There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.           
 49. Which two of the following would be considered a physical threat? (Choose 2)
  A user leaving their password in their desk.           
Someone turning off the power to the switch to block network access.           
Someone turning off the air conditioning system in the network closet.           
  Someone breaking into the cabinet that contains the network documentation.           
 50. Which four of the following can be protected with a password? (Choose 4)
Console access           
VTY access           
TTY access           
  User level access           
Exec level access           
 51. Which of the following is the most secure method of remotely accessing a network device?
  http           
  telnet           
ssh           
  rmon           
  snmp           
 52. Which of the following describes the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager ?
  It is a PC based management system that can be used to configure features like DHCP sever.           
It is a WEB based management system that can be used to configure features like DHCP sever.           
  It is a server based management system that can be used to configure features like DHCP sever.           
  It is a client based management system that can be used to configure features like DHCP sever.           
 53. Where do the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager files reside?
  The PC           
The Router           
  The local client           
  A Network server           
 54. What the two of the following are functions of DHCP? (Choose 2.)
  DHCP dynamically assigns host names to client devices           
DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to client devices.           
DHCP dynamically assigns a default gateway to client devices.           
  DHCP dynamically assigns security access levels to client devices.           
 55. Which of the following describes the DHCP server provided by Cisco IOS?
It is a full DHCP server            
  Its support is limited to assigning IP addresses to clients.           
  It has to get is DHCP information for a master DHCP server.           
  It has limited DHCP support and can only assign IP addresses and default gateways to clients.           
 56. Which of the following are required DHCP parameters when configuring a DHCP server on a Cisco router? (Choose 2)
Pool Name           
  Domain Name           
  Default Router           
  DNS Server Address           
  WINS Server Address           
DHCP Network and Subnet           
 57. Which command can be used to see if an address in the DHCP pool is already in use by another device?
  sh ip dhcp bindings           
  sh ip dhcp database           
  sh ip dhcp mapping            
sh ip dhcp conflict           
 58. Which of the following is a Cisco IOS tool that can be used for secure remote access to another device?
SSH           
  SDM           
  ping           
  Telnet           
  traceroute           
 59. Which command would you use to see who has Telnet sessions to your router?
show user           
  show telnet           
  show sessions           
  show connections           
 60. Which of the following would you use to suspend a Telnet sessions?
  end keyword           
  suspend keyword           
CTRL-Shift-6 key sequence           
  CTRL-Shift-Del key sequence           
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Answers for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions -Module 3

Posted on August 21, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source

Legend
answer   Correct answer
  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
1. What is the most tangible benefit of wireless implementations?
cost reduction          
  increased mobility          
  better productivity          
  improved security          
2. What method does a WLAN use to control transmissions?
CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance)          
  CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)          
  CSMA/CR (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Rejection)          
  CSMA/CW (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Weighting)          
3a. Occurs when radio frequency (RF) waves bounce off metal or glass surfaces.
  Absorption          
Reflection          
  Scattering          
3b. Occurs when RF waves are soaked up by walls.
Absorption          
  Reflection          
  Scattering          
3c. Occurs when RF waves strike an uneven surface and are reflected in many directions.
  Absorption          
  Reflection          
Scattering          
4. Which regulatory agency controls the 801.11 standard that governs WLANs?
  Wi-Fi Alliance          
IEEE          
  EMA          
  WISC          
5. Which organization offers certification for interoperability between vendors of 802.11 products?
Wi-Fi          
  IEEE          
  EMA          
  WISC          
6. Which three are the unlicensed bands used by WLANs? (Choose Three)
  2.4-MHz band          
900-MHz band          
2.4-GHz band          
5-GHz band          
  900-GHz band          
7. Which two of the 802.11 standards has the highest possible data rates? (Choose two)
  802.11          
  802.11a          
  802.11b          
  802.11d          
802.11g          
8. Which 802.11 standard transmits using the 5-Ghz band?
  802.11          
802.11a          
  802.11b          
  802.11d          
  802.11g          
9. Which is true as related to the Wi-Fi Alliance organization?
  It is a global standards organization that controls the compatibility of Wi-Fi products          
  It operates only in the United States of America and ensures the compatibility of Wi-Fi products          
It is a global, nonprofit industry trade association devoted to promoting the growth and acceptance of wireless LANs          
  It is a global, nonprofit industry trade association devoted to promoting the installation of wireless LANs in retail locations          
10. What is a rogue AP?
  An AP that has an open WEP key          
  An AP that is broadcasting its SSID          
An unsecured AP that has been placed on a WLAN          
  An AP that has had a hardware failure that causes it to endlessly broadcast its SSID          
11. Which three are the steps to secure a WLAN? (Choose Three)
Encryption for providing privacy and confidentiality          
Authentication to ensure that legitimate clients and users access the network via trusted access points          
  Controls transmit power to limit the AP access range to the property boundaries of the parent organization          
Protection from security risks and availability with intrusion detection and intrusion protection systems for WLANs          
12. Which standard provides the strongest level of WLAN security?
  EAP          
  WEP          
  WPA          
802.11i/WPA2          
13. What factor determines which AP a client will associate with?
  the AP with the lowest SSID          
  the AP with the highest SSID          
  the AP whose SSID is received first          
the AP that is received with the strongest signal          
14. When using 802.11X, how is the client authenticated?
  The client is authenticated against a local database stored on the AP          
  The access point forwards all network traffic to the server where it is either authenticated or blocked          
  The access point encapsulates any 802.1X traffic bound for the authentication server and sends it to the server          
The client encapsulates the 802.1X authentication traffic before sending it to the AP. This causes the AP to forward it to the server          
15. Which is true when comparing WPA and WPA2?
  WPA uses pre-shared keys while WPA 2 uses PSK          
  WPA uses EAP authentication while WPA 2 uses 802.11X          
  WPA uses a personal mode while WPA 2 uses an enterprise mode          
WPA uses TKIP/MIC encryption while WPA 2 uses AES-CCMP encryption          
16a. Mobile clients connect directly without an intermediate access point
Ad hoc mode          
  Basic Service Set (BSS)          
  Extended Services Set (ESS)          
16b. The communication devices use a single access point for connectivity to each other or to wired network resources
  Ad hoc mode          
Basic Service Set (BSS)          
  Extended Services Set (ESS)          
16c.The wireless topology is two or more service sets connected by a distribution system (DS) or commonly a wired infrastructure.
  Ad hoc mode          
  Basic Service Set (BSS)          
Extended Services Set (ESS)          
17. What does the physical area of radio frequency coverage provided by an access point define?
  the RF service area          
the basic service area          
  the ad hoc service area          
  the extended services area          
18. When implementing extended service areas, how much overlap is suggested?
  5 to 10 percent          
10 to 15 percent          
  15 to 20 percent          
  25 to 30 percent          
19. What technique allows a client to communicate while moving?
the ability to shift data rates          
  the ability to vary transmit levels          
  the ability to match the transmit level to the receive level          
  the ability to perform error correction as the signal level changes          
20. Which three are basic wireless access point parameters? (Choose Three)
SSID          
authentication          
  data exchange rates          
  Transmit band selection          
RF channel with optional power          
21. When implementing a WLAN, when should you use WEP?
  Only if there is an AAA server available          
  When you need the increased security of WEP          
  When you are planning to enable 802.11x authentication          
Only if the hardware equipment does not support WPA          
22a. full feature supplicant for both wired and wireless client
  WZC          
  Cisco Compatible Extension          
Cisco Secure Services Client          
22b. Windows operating systems basic wireless supplicant client
WZC          
  Cisco Compatible Extension          
  Cisco Secure Services Client          
22c. more advance wireless client features than those of native operating system
  WZC          
Cisco Compatible Extension          
  Cisco Secure Services Client          
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Number answered correctly: 26 out of 28
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Answers for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions – Module 2

Posted on August 13, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exam Source
Legend
answer   Correct answer
  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
1. Which two statements about the functions of a hub are accurate? (Choose two.)
A hub extends an Ethernet LAN.          
  A hub reduces the size of a collision domain.          
  Adding a hub eliminates the need for users on a network segment to compete for the same bandwidth.          
  A hub is a data link layer device.          
A hub amplifies the data signal before retransmitting it.          
2. Which three statements best describe collisions? (Choose three.)
Collisions occur when two or more stations on a shared media transmit at the same time.          
  Larger segments are less likely to have collisions.          
In a collision, the frames are destroyed, and each station in the segment begins a random timer that must be completed before attempting to retransmit the data.          
  Adding a hub to a network can improve collision issues.          
Collisions are by-products of a shared LAN.          
  More segments on a network mean greater potential for collisions.          
3. Which of these choices best describes a collision domain?
  two or more devices trying to communicate at the same time          
  two networks that are connected          
network segments that share the same bandwidth          
  none of the above          
4. What type of hardware will help eliminate collisions?
  repeater          
bridge          
  hub          
  extender          
5. Which three factors are typical causes of network congestion? (Choose three.)
high-bandwidth applications          
  many network segments          
increasing volume of network traffic          
more powerful computer and network technologies          
  few network segments          
  greater distances for LANs          
6. What are four characteristics of a bridge? (Choose four.)
  Bridges forward but do not filter data frames between LAN segments.          
Bridges maintain MAC address tables.          
Bridges are more “intelligent” than hubs.          
Bridges can buffer and forward frames between two or more LAN segments.          
  Bridges create fewer collision domains.          
Bridges operate at Layer 2 of the OSI model.          
7. What are two major benefits of adding a bridge to a network? (Choose two.)
isolating potential network problems to specific segments          
increasing the speed of a network          
  extending a LAN to cover greater distances by joining multiple segments          
  creating fewer collision domains          
  forwarding data frames between LAN segments          
8a. If the switch determines that the destination MAC address of the frame resides on the same network segment as the source, it does not forward the frame.
  Flooding          
Filtering          
  Forwarding          
8b. If the switch determines that the destination MAC address of the frame is not from the same network as the source, it transmits the frame to the appropriate segment.
  Flooding          
  Filtering          
Forwarding          
8c. If the switch does not have an entry for the destination address, it will transmit the frame out of all ports except the port on which it received the frame.
Flooding          
  Filtering          
  Forwarding          
9. Which three characteristics apply to a switch? (Choose three.)
uses a table of MAC addresses to determine the port to which the data is to be sent          
  connects LAN segments          
  reduces the number of collision domains          
increases the number of collision domains          
filters data before forwarding it to its destination on the network          
10. Which three features differentiate switches from bridges? (Choose three.)
large frame buffers          
  use of a table of MAC addresses to determine the segment to which the data is to be sent          
support for mixed media rates          
high port densities          
  ability to segment LANs          
11. Which three statements are accurate about how the network performance of a switch compares to that of a bridge? (Choose three.)
Switches operate at much higher speeds than bridges.          
  Switches operate at lower speeds than bridges.          
Switches support more advanced functionality than bridges.          
  Switches support less functionality than bridges.          
Switches support dedicated communication between devices.          
  Switches do not support dedicated communication between devices.          
12. Which three statements about microsegmentation are accurate? (Choose three.)
  Implementing a bridge creates microsegmentation.          
Microsegmentation increases bandwidth availability.          
Each device on a network segment is connected directly to a switch port.          
Microsegmentation eliminates collisions.          
  Microsegmentation limits the number of segments on a network.          
  Microsegmentation uses half-duplex operation.          
13a. The network sends and receives data frames one at a time, but not simultaneously.
  Full-duplex communication          
Half-duplex communication          
13b. This communication type effectively doubles the amount of bandwidth between the devices.
Full-duplex communication          
  Half-duplex communication          
13c. The network sends and receives data frames simultaneously.
Full-duplex communication          
  Half-duplex communication          
14a. At the end-user level, gives high-performance, PC workstation 100-Mbps access to a server
  Ethernet 10BASE-T          
Fast Ethernet          
  Gigabit Ethernet          
14b. Not typically used at the end-user level; at the workgroup level, provides connectivity between the end user and workgroups; at the backbone level, provides interswitch connectivity for low- to medium-volume applications
  Ethernet 10BASE-T          
  Fast Ethernet          
Gigabit Ethernet          
14c. At the workgroup level, provides high-performance connectivity to the enterprise server
  Ethernet 10BASE-T          
Fast Ethernet          
  Gigabit Ethernet          
14d. At the backbone level, provides backbone and interswitch connectivity
  Ethernet 10BASE-T          
  Fast Ethernet          
Gigabit Ethernet          
14e. At the end-user level, provides connectivity between the end user and the user-level switch
Ethernet 10BASE-T          
  Fast Ethernet          
  Gigabit Ethernet          
14f. Provides interswitch connectivity for low- to medium-volume applications
  Ethernet 10BASE-T          
  Fast Ethernet          
Gigabit Ethernet          
15. When a Cisco device starts up, which of the following does it run to check its hardware?
flash          
  RAM          
  POST          
  TFTP          
16. When a Catalyst switch or Cisco router starts up, what is the first operation performed?
  The device performs system startup routes.          
The device performs hardware checking routines.          
  The device attempts to locate other devices on the network.          
  The device tries to find and apply software configuration settings.          
17. Upon initial installation of a Cisco switch or router, the network administrator typically configures the networking devices from a _____.
  CD-ROM          
  TFTP server          
console terminal          
  modem connection          
18. If a network administrator is supporting a remote device, the preferred method is to use a modem connection to the _____ of the device for remote configuration.
  LAN port          
  uplink port          
  console port          
auxilary port          
19. Which access level allows a person to access all router commands and can be password protected to allow only authorized individuals to access the router?
  user EXEC level          
  setup EXEC level          
  enable EXEC level          
privileged EXEC level          
20. How do you instruct a Cisco device to parse and execute an entered command?
  Press the Send key          
Press the Enter key          
  Add a space at end of the command          
  Wait 5 seconds after you enter the command          
21. Which CLI prompt indicates that you are working in privileged EXEC mode?
hostname#          
  hostname>          
  hostname-exec>          
  hostname-config          
22. Which command would you enter in the privileged EXEC mode to list the command options?
?          
  init          
  help          
  login          
23a. Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket.
  Step 1          
Step 2          
  Step 3          
23b. Observe the boot sequence, including the Cisco IOS software output text on the console.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
Step 3          
23c. Verify that all cable connections are secure, the terminal is connected to the console port, and the console terminal application is selected.
Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
24. How do you start a Catalyst 2950 series switch?
  Press the on/off switch.          
  Power up the redundant power supply.          
  Connect a network cable to another switch on the network.          
Attach the power cable plug to the switch power supply socket.          
25. If the POST tests complete successfully on a Catalyst switch, what display could you see on the console?
the > prompt          
  the privileged EXEC prompt          
  the Management Console logon screen          
  a list of commands available on the switch          
26. What CLI command should you enter to display a list of commands that begin with the letter “c” on a Catalyst switch?
c?          
  c ?          
  help c          
  help c*          
27. What CLI command should you enter to display the command syntax help so that you can see how to complete a command that begins with “config”?
  config?          
config ?          
  help config          
  help config*          
28. Which Cisco IOS command correctly configures an IP address and subnet mask on a switch?
  ip address          
  ip address 196.125.243.10          
  196.125.243.10 ip address          
ip address 196.125.243.10 255.255.255.0          
29. Which configuration mode will you use to configure a particular port on a switch?
  user mode          
  global configuration mode          
interface configuration mode          
  controller configuration mode          
30. When you use the show interface command to display the status and statistics for the interfaces configured on a Catalyst switch, which output field indicates the MAC address that identifies the interface hardware?
  MTU 1500 bytes          
  Hardware is … 10BaseT          
Address is 0050.BD73.E2C1          
  802.1d STP State: Forwarding          
31. Which show command requires that you have privileged EXEC mode access?
  show ip          
  show version          
show running          
  show interfaces          
32. How should you power up a Cisco router?
  Press the Reset button.          
Turn the power switch to “on.”          
  Connect the fiber cable to another router.          
  Attach the power cable plug to the router power supply socket.          
33. Which two of the following would be considered a physical threat? (Choose 2)
  A user leaving their password in their desk.          
Someone turning off the power to the switch to block network access.          
Someone turning off the air conditioning system in the network closet.          
  Someone breaking into the cabinet that contains the network documentation.          
34. Which four of the following can be protected with a password? (Choose 4)
Console access          
VTY access          
TTY access          
  User level access          
Exec level access          
35. Which two of the following are customized text that is displayed before the username and password login prompts?
Message Of the Day          
Login Banner          
  Access warning          
  User Banner          
  Warning message          
36. Which of the following is the most secure method of remotely accessing a network device?
  http          
  telnet          
ssh          
  rmon          
  snmp          
37. Which of the following is an IOS feature that can be used to control access to the VTY ports?
  shutdown          
  port security          
access list          
  firewall          
38. Which of the following is an IOS command that can be used to control access to a switch port based upon a MAC address?
  shutdown          
port security          
  mac-secure          
  firewall          
39. Which of the following is an IOS command that can be used to increase the security of unused switch ports?
shutdown          
  port security          
  mac-secure          
  firewall          
40. Which problem is caused by redundant connections in a network?
  microsegmentation          
loops          
  degradation          
  collisions          
41. Which statement best describes how loops can affect performance in a switched LAN?
Broadcast storms may be created when loops occur, preventing data from being transmitted over the network.          
  Any multicast, broadcast, or unknown traffic will be flooded out to all ports.          
  Incorrect information may be updated to the MAC address tables, resulting in inaccurate forwarding of frames.          
  The loop removes the frame from the network.          
42. Which statement accurately describes Spanning-Tree Protocol?
STP assigns roles to bridges and ports to ensure that only one forwarding path exists through the network at any given time.          
  STP automatically keeps the previously inactive path inactive.          
  STP eliminates the segments in which there are problems.          
  STP allows ports to listen to, forward, and flood data frames.          
43. Which of the following is an IOS command that is the most useful when troubleshooting media issues?
  show controller          
  show run          
show interface          
  show counters          
44. Which of the following is an IOS command that is the most useful when troubleshooting port access issues?
  show controller          
  show run          
show interface          
  show counters          
45. Which three of the following are methods used to mitigate configuration issues? (Choose 3)
  Secure unused ports          
Secure the configuration          
Verify changes before you save          
Know what you have before you start
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Answers for Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices (ICND) Practice Questions- Module 1 – with explanations

Posted on June 30, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Cisco ICND1 Exam Modules, Practice Exam |

Exam Source

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answer   Correct answer
  Your answer, Correct.
  Your answer, Incorrect.
 
1. Which three statements about networks are accurate? (Choose three.)
Networks are used to transmit data in many kinds of environments, including homes, small businesses, and large enterprises.          
A main office can have hundreds or even thousands of people who depend on network access to do their jobs.          
A network is a connected collection of devices that can communicate with each other.          
  A main office usually has one large network to connect all users.          
  The purpose of a network is to create a means to provide all workers with access to all information and components that are accessible by the network.          
  Remote locations cannot connect to a main office through a network.          
2. What is the purpose of a router?
to interconnect networks and choose the best paths between them          
  to provide the connection points for the media          
  to serve as the end point in the network, sending and receiving data          
  to provide the means by which the signals are transmitted from one networked device to another          
3. What is the purpose of a switch?
  to connect separate networks and filter the traffic over those networks so that the data is transmitted through the most efficient route          
  to choose the path over which data is sent to its destination          
  to serve as the end point in the network, sending and receiving data          
to provide network attachment to the end systems and intelligent switching of the data within the local network          
4. What is the purpose of network interconnections?
  to connect separate networks and filter the traffic over those networks so that the data is transmitted through the most efficient route          
  to choose the path over which data is sent to its destination          
to provide a means for data to travel from one point to another in the network          
  to provide network attachment to the end systems and intelligent switching of the data within the local network          
5. Which resource is not sharable on a network?
memory          
  applications          
  peripherals          
  storage devices          
6. Which three of the following are common network applications? (Choose three.)
e-mail          
collaboration          
  graphics creation          
database          
  word processing          
  spreadsheets          
7a Indicates how easily users can access the network
  Speed          
  Cost          
  Security          
Availability          
  Scalability          
  Reliability          
  Topology          
7b. Indicates how dependable the network is
  Speed          
  Cost          
  Security          
  Availability          
  Scalability          
Reliability          
  Topology          
7c. Indicates the protection level of the network itself and the data that is transmitted
  Speed          
  Cost          
Security          
  Availability          
  Scalability          
  Reliability          
  Topology          
7d. Indicates how fast data is transmitted over the network
Speed          
  Cost          
  Security          
  Availability          
  Scalability          
  Reliability          
  Topology          
7e. Indicates how well the network can accommodate more users or data transmission requirements
  Speed          
  Cost          
  Security          
  Availability          
Scalability          
  Reliability          
  Topology          
7f. Indicates the structure of the network
  Speed          
  Cost          
  Security          
  Availability          
  Scalability          
  Reliability          
Topology          
7g. Indicates the general price of components, installation, and maintenance of the network
  Speed          
Cost          
  Security          
  Availability          
  Scalability          
  Reliability          
  Topology          
8. Which two statements about physical networking topologies are accurate? (Choose two)
A physical topology defines the way in which the computers, printers, network devices, and other devices are connected.          
There are three primary categories of physical topologies: bus, ring, and star.          
  A physical topology describes the paths that signals travel from one point on a network to another.          
  The choice of a physical topology is largely influenced by the type of data to be transmitted over the network.          
9. Which statement about logical topologies is accurate?
  A logical topology defines the way in which the computers, printers, network devices, and other devices are connected.          
  A logical topology depends solely on the type of computers to be included in the network.          
A logical topology describes the paths that the signals travel from one point on a network to another          
  A network cannot have different logical and physical topologies.          
10a. All of the network devices connect directly to each other in a linear fashion.
  Star          
Bus          
  Mesh          
  Ring          
  Partial-mesh          
  Dual-ring          
10b. All of the network devices are directly connected to one central point with no other connections between them.
Star          
  Bus          
  Mesh          
  Ring          
  Partial-mesh          
  Dual-ring          
10c. All of the devices on a network are connected in the form of a circle.
  Star          
  Bus          
  Mesh          
Ring          
  Partial-mesh          
  Dual-ring          
10d. Each device has a connection to all of the other devices
  Star          
  Bus          
Mesh          
  Ring          
  Partial-mesh          
  Dual-ring          
10e. At least one device maintains multiple connections to other devices.
  Star          
  Bus          
  Mesh          
  Ring          
Partial-mesh          
  Dual-ring          
10f. This design adds redundancy to the network.
  Star          
  Bus          
  Mesh          
  Ring          
  Partial-mesh          
Dual-ring          
11. Which two statements about wireless networks are accurate? (Choose two.)
Instead of cables, wireless communication uses RFs or infrared waves to transmit data.          
To receive the signals from the access point, a computer needs to have a wireless adapter card or wireless NIC.          
  For wireless LANs, a key component is a router, which propagates signal distribution.          
  Wireless networks are not very common, and generally only large corporations use them.          
12. What is the main threat to a closed network?
  a deliberate attack from outside          
a deliberate or accidental attack from inside          
  misuse by customers          
  misuse by employees          
13. Which two factors have recently influenced the increase in threats from hackers? (Choose two.)
  Hacker tools require more technical knowledge to use.          
Hacker tools have become more sophisticated.          
  The number of reported security threats has remained constant year to year.          
Hacker tools require less technical knowledge to use.          
14. Which of the following four attacks are classified as access attacks?
password attacks          
  DDoS          
  Trojan horse          
  Love Bug          
15. Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
The OSI model defines the network functions that occur at each layer.          
The OSI model facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network.          
  The OSI model ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach.          
  The OSI model allows changes in one layer to affect the other layers.          
16a. Provides connectivity and path selection between two host systems that may be located on geographically separated networks
  Physical          
  Datalink          
Network          
  Transport          
  Session          
  Presentation          
  Application          
16b. Ensures that the information sent at the application layer of one system is readable by the application layer of another system
  Physical          
  Datalink          
  Network          
  Transport          
  Session          
Presentation          
  Application          
16c. Defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the network is controlled
  Physical          
Datalink          
  Network          
  Transport          
  Session          
  Presentation          
  Application          
16d. Segments data from the system of the sending host and reassembles the data into a data stream on the system of the receiving host
  Physical          
  Datalink          
  Network          
Transport          
  Session          
  Presentation          
  Application          
16e. Defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the physical link between end systems
Physical          
  Datalink          
  Network          
  Transport          
  Session          
  Presentation          
  Application          
16f. Provides network services to the applications of the user, such as e-mail, file transfer, and terminal emulation
  Physical          
  Datalink          
  Network          
  Transport          
  Session          
  Presentation          
Application          
16g. Establishes, manages, and terminates sessions between two communicating hosts and also synchronizes dialogue between the presentation layers of the two hosts and manages their data exchange
  Physical          
  Datalink          
  Network          
  Transport          
Session          
  Presentation          
  Application          
17a. The presentation layer adds the presentation layer header (Layer 6 header) to the data. This then becomes the data that is passed down to the session layer.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17b. The session layer adds the session layer header (Layer 5 header) to the data. This then becomes the data that is passed down to the transport layer.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17c. The application layer adds the application layer header (Layer 7 header) to the user data. The Layer 7 header and the original user data become the data that is passed down to the presentation layer.
  Step 1          
Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17d. The network layer adds the network layer header (Layer 3 header) to the data. This then becomes the data that is passed down to the data link layer.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17e. The transport layer adds the transport layer header (Layer 4 header) to the data. This then becomes the data that is passed down to the network layer.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17f. The user data is sent from an application to the application layer.
Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
  Step 8          
17g. The data link layer adds the data link layer header and trailer (Layer 2 header and trailer) to the data. A Layer 2 trailer is usually the frame check sequence, which is used by the receiver to detect whether the data is in error. This then becomes the data that is passed down to the physical layer.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
Step 7          
  Step 8          
17h. The physical layer then transmits the bits onto the network media.
  Step 1          
  Step 2          
  Step 3          
  Step 4          
  Step 5          
  Step 6          
  Step 7          
Step 8          
18. At which layer does de-encapsulation first occur?
  application          
datalink          
  network          
  transport          
19a. Encapsulates the network layer packet in a frame
  Network layer          
Datalink layer          
  Physical layer          
19b. Moves the data through the internetwork by encapsulating the data and attaching a header to create a packet
Network layer          
  Datalink layer          
  Physical layer          
19c. Encodes the data-link frame into a pattern of 1s and 0s (bits) for transmission on the medium (usually a wire)
  Network layer          
  Datalink layer          
Physical layer          
20. What is the function of a network protocol?
uses sets of rules that tell the services of a network what to do          
  ensures reliable delivery of data          
  routes data to its destination in the most efficient manner          
  is a set of functions that determine how data is defined          
21a. Provides applications for file transfer, network troubleshooting, and Internet activities, and supports the network
  Physical layer          
  Datalink layer          
  Internet layer          
  Transport layer          
Application layer          
21b. Defines how data is formatted for transmission and how access to the network is controlled
  Physical layer          
Datalink layer          
  Internet layer          
  Transport layer          
  Application layer          
21c. Defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for activating, maintaining, and deactivating the physical link between end systems
Physical layer          
  Datalink layer          
  Internet layer          
  Transport layer          
  Application layer          
21d. Provides routing of data from the source to a destination by defining the packet and addressing scheme, moving data between the data link and transport layers, routing packets of data to remote hosts, and performing fragmentation and reassembly of data packets
  Physical layer          
  Datalink layer          
Internet layer          
  Transport layer          
  Application layer          
21e. Provides communication services directly to the application processes running on different network hosts
  Physical layer          
  Datalink layer          
  Internet layer          
Transport layer          
  Application layer          
22. Which area of the OSI model and the TCP/IP stack is most diverse?
  network layer          
  transport layer          
application layer          
  data link layer          
23. How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
  16          
32          
  48          
  64          
  128          
24. In a Class B address, which of the octets are the host address portion and are assigned locally?
  The first octet is assigned locally.          
  The first and second octets are assigned locally.          
  The second and third octets are assigned locally.          
The third and fourth octets are assigned locally.          
25. The address 172.16.128.17 is of which class?
  Class A          
Class B          
  Class C          
  Class D          
26. Which of the following statements is true of a directed-broadcast address?
  A broadcast address is an address that has all 0s in the host field.          
  Any IP address in a network can be used as a broadcast address.          
A directed broadcast address is an address that has all 1s in the host field.          
  None of the above is correct.          
27. Which two of these addresses are private IP addresses? (Choose two.)
10.215.34.124          
  127.16.71.43          
172.17.10.10          
  225.200.15.10          
28. Which three statements about IP are accurate? (Choose three.)
IP is a connectionless protocol.          
  IP uses relational addressing.          
  IP delivers data reliably          
  IP operates at Layer 2 of the TCP/IP stack and OSI model.          
IP does not provide any recovery functions.          
IP delivers data on a best-effort basis.          
29. Which three statements about TCP are accurate? (Choose three.)
  TCP operates at Layer 3 of the TCP/IP stack.          
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol.          
  TCP provides no error checking.          
TCP packets are numbered and sequenced so that the destination can reorder packets and determine if a packet is missing.          
  TCP provides no recovery service.          
Upon receipt of one or more TCP packets, the receiver returns an acknowledgement to the sender indicating that it received the packets.          
30. In the OSI model, which characteristic is similar between TCP and UDP?
operates at Layer 4 (transport layer) of the OSI model and the TCP/IP stack          
  capable of performing a very limited form of error checking          
  provides service on a best-effort basis and does not guarantee packet delivery          
  provides no special features that recover lost or corrupted packets          
31. When a single computer with one IP address has several websites open at once, this is called _____.
  windowing          
session multiplexing          
  segmenting          
  connection-oriented protocol          
32. TCP is best for which two of the following applications? (Choose two.)
E-mail          
  voice streaming          
downloading          
  video streaming          
33. Which three of the following characteristics apply to UDP? (Choose three.)
Packets are treated independently.          
  Packet delivery is guaranteed.          
Packet delivery is not guaranteed          
Lost or corrupted packets are not resent          
34. Which two of the following characteristics apply to TCP? (Choose two.)
  Packet delivery is not guaranteed.          
  Lost or corrupted packets are not resent.          
Lost or corrupted packets are resent.          
TCP segment contains a sequence number and an acknowledgment number.          
35. Proprietary applications use which kind of port?
  dynamically assigned ports          
  well-known ports          
registered ports          
36. Ports that are used only for the duration of a specific session are called _____.
dynamically assigned ports          
  well-known ports          
  registered ports          
37. The source port in both a UDP header and a TCP header is a _____.
  16-bit number of the called port          
  16-bit length of the header          
  16-bit sum of the header and data fields          
16-bit number of the calling port          
38. Which field in a TCP header ensures that data arrives in correct order?
  acknowledgement number          
sequence number          
  reserved          
  options          
39. In a TCP connection setup, the initiating device sends what?
  ACK          
  receive SYN          
send SYN          
40. Acknowledgment and windowing are two forms of _____.
flow control          
  TCP connection          
  TCP sequencing          
  reliable connections          
41. Windowing provides which of the following services?
  The sender can multiplex          
  The receiver can have outstanding acknowledgments.          
  The receiver can multiplex          
The sender can transmit a specified number of unacknowledged segments.          
42. Sequence numbers and acknowledgment numbers are found where?
  UDP header          
TCP header          
  in the initial sequence number          
  application layer          
43. What organization is responsible for Ethernet standards?
  ISO          
IEEE          
  EIA          
  IEC          
44. What are two characteristics of Ethernet 802.3? (Choose two.)
based on the CSMA/CD process          
  a standard that has been replaced by Ethernet II          
  specifies the physical layer (Layer 1)          
  developed in the mid-1970s          
specifies the MAC portion of the data link layer (Layer 2)          
  also referred to as thick Ethernet          
45. Which statement about MAC addresses is accurate?
A MAC address is a number in hexadecimal format that is physically located on the NIC.          
  A MAC address is represented by hexadecimal digits that are organized in pairs          
  It is not necessary for a device to have a unique MAC address to participate in the network.          
  The MAC address can never be changed          
46. Which minimum category of UTP is required for Ethernet 1000BASE-T?
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
Category 5          
  Category 5e          
47a. Capable of transmitting data at speeds up to 100 Mbps
  Category 1          
  Category 2          
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
Category 5          
  Category 5e          
  Category 6          
47b. Used in networks running at speeds up to 1000 Mbps requiring improved far end crosstalk performance.
  Category 1          
  Category 2          
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
  Category 5          
Category 5e          
  Category 6          
47c. Is expected to support 10GBASE-T, but with distance limitations
  Category 1          
  Category 2          
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
  Category 5          
  Category 5e          
Category 6          
47d. Used for telephone communications; not suitable for transmitting data
Category 1          
  Category 2          
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
  Category 5          
  Category 5e          
  Category 6          
47e. Used in Token Ring networks; can transmit data at speeds up to 16 Mbps
  Category 1          
  Category 2          
  Category 3          
Category 4          
  Category 5          
  Category 5e          
  Category 6          
47f. Capable of transmitting data at speeds up to 4 Mbps
  Category 1          
Category 2          
  Category 3          
  Category 4          
  Category 5          
  Category 5e          
  Category 6          
47g. Used in 10BASE-T networks; can transmit data at speeds up to 10 Mbps
  Category 1          
  Category 2          
Category 3          
  Category 4          
  Category 5          
  Category 5e          
  Category 6          
48. Which three characteristics pertain to UTP? (Choose three.)
  UTP cable is an eight-pair wire.          
An insulating material covers each of the individual copper wires in UTP cable.          
  The wires in each pair are wrapped around each other.          
  Expensive to install due to use of large gauge copper conductors.          
Susceptible to electromagnetic interference.          
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