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CCNA Practice Exam — 50 Question Set

Posted on September 8, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Others, Practice Exam |

Exam Source

Q1. Which of the following is Class C IP address?

A. 10.10.14.118

B. 135.23.112.57

C. 191.200.199.199

D. 204.67.118.54

Correct Answer: D.

Explanation:

IP addresses are written using decimal numbers separated by decimal points. This is called dotted decimal notation of expressing IP addresses. The different classes of IP addresses is as below:

Class Format Leading Bit Network address Maximum Maximum pattern Range networks hosts

A N.H.H.H 0 0 – 126 127 16,777,214

B N.N.H.H 10 128 – 191 16,384 65,534

C N.N.N.H 110 192 – 223 2,097,152 254

Network address of all zeros means “This network or segment”.

Network address of all 1s means ” all networks”, same as hexadecimal of all Fs.

Network number 127 is reserved for loopback tests.

Host (Node) address of all zeros mean “This Host (Node)”.

Host (Node) address of all 1s mean “all Hosts (Nodes) ” on the specified network.

Q2. You have an IP of 156.233.42.56 with a subnet mask of 7 bits. How many hosts and subnets are possible?

A. 126 hosts and 510 subnets

B. 128 subnets and 512 hosts

C. 510 hosts and 126 subnets

D. 512 subnets and 128 hosts

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Class B network has the form N.N.H.H, the default subnet mask is 16 bits long.

There is additional 7 bits to the default subnet mask. The total number of bits in subnet are 16+7 = 23.

This leaves us with 32-23 =9 bits for assigning to hosts.

7 bits of subnet mask corresponds to (2^7-2)=128-2 = 126 subnets.

9 bits belonging to host addresses correspond to (2^9-2)=512-2 = 510 hosts.

Q3. Two sub layers of OSI Data Link layer are which of the following? [Select 2].

A. Logical Link Control

B. Data Link Control

C. Media Access Control

D. Physical Layer Control

Correct answer: A,C

Explanation:

Data Link Layer is layer 2 of OSI reference model. This layer is divided into two sub-layers:

1.Logical Link Control (LLC) sub-layer.

2. Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer.

The LLC sub-layer handles error control, flow control, framing, and MAC sub-layer addressing.

The MAC sub-layer is the lower of the two sub-layers of the Data Link layer.

MAC sub-layer handles access to shared media, such a Token passing or Ethernet.

Q4. Match the following:

A. Repeaters 1. Data Link Layer

B. Bridges 2. Network Layer

C. Routers 3. Physical Layer

Select the best combination:

A. A —>2, B—>3, C—>1

B. A—>3, B—->1, C—->2

C. A—>3,B—–>2, C—->1

D. A—->1, B—->2, C—->3

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

Repeaters work at Physical layer (Layer 1),

Bridges and simple switches work at Data Link Layer (Layer 2),

Routers work at Network Layer (Layer 3) of ISO Reference Model.

Q5. Which of the following are session layer standards? [Select 2].

A. NFS

B. SQL

C. JPG

D. MIDI

Correct answer: A,B

Explanation:

The following are some Presentation Layer standards:

Graphic and Visual Image: PICT, TIFF, JPEG

Movies and Sound: MIDI, MPEG, Quick Time

The following are Session layer standards:

NFS, SQL, RPC, X -Windows.

Q6. Match the corresponding layers of ISO and DoD models?

DoD Model ISO OSI Model

A. Process/Application 1. Application

B. Host-to-Host 2. Presentation

C. Internet 3. Session

D. Network Access 4. Transport

5. Network

6. Data Link

7. Physical

Choose best choice:

A. A->1+2; B->3+4; C->5; D->6+7

B. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5; D->6+7

C. A->1+2+3; B->4; C->5+6; D->7

D. A->1+2+3; B->4+5; C->6; D->7

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

DoD Model maps to OSI model as below:

Process/ Application maps to OSI’s Application, Presentation,Session layers (layers 7,6,5).

Host-to-Host maps to ISO’s Transport layer (layer 4).

Internet maps to ISO’s Network layer (layer 3).

Network Access maps to ISO’s Data Link and Physical Layers (layers 6,7).

Q7. What is the command used to add a banner to a Cisco router configuration?

A. add banner

B. banner motd #

C. motd banner #

D. add banner #

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

The banner is displayed whenever anyone logs in to your Cisco router. The syntax is

“banner motd # ” . MOTD stands for “Message Of The Day”.

# symbol signifies the start of the banner message to the router. You will be prompted for the

message to be displayed. You need to enter “#” symbol at the end of the message, signifying

that the msg has ended.

Q8. What is the default administrative distance for RIP?

A. 100

B. 120

C. 0

D. 200

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

Default administrative distances are as below:

Route Source Default Distance

Directly connect Interface 0

Static Route 1

IGRP 100

RIP 120

Unknown 255

The administrative distance (metric) is used to represent the trust worthiness of the route.

Q9. The Cisco Catalyst 1900 switches support which three LAN switch types? [Select 3].

A. Store-and-Forward

B. FragmentFree

C. InstaSwitch

D. FastForward

Correct answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

The Catalyst 1900 and 2820 series switches support three types of switching methods:

1. FastForward (Cut-through): In this type of switching, the packet is forwarded as soon as the destination address is read. This has least latency.

2. FragmentFree ( Modified cut-through): This type of switching is usefull when your network is experiencing large number of collisions. FragmentFree switching has a latency in between FastFoward and the Store-and-Forward.

3. Store-and-Forward: This method stores the entire frame and checks for errors before forwarding it on to another port. Store-and-forward has the highest latency compared with both FastForward and FragmentFree.

The default switching method used by Catalyst 1900 series switches is FastForward.

Q10. Which is true regarding VLANs?

A. VLAN technology uses VLAN switches (layer 2) which is a substitute for routing technology which uses routers.

B. A VLAN has same collision domain

C. A VLAN has same broadcast domain

D. VLANs are less secure with respect to simple switch or Hub networks.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

A VLAN is a group of devices on one or more logically segmented LANs. All devices working on a VLAN will have same broadcast domain. Like routers, switches (Layer 2) have the ability to provide domain broadcast segmentation called a VLAN. Using VLAN technology, you can group switch ports and their connected users into logically defined communities of interest. A VLAN operating on a Catalyst switch limits transmission of unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic to only the other ports belonging to that VLAN, thereby controlling broadcasts.

The benefits of VLANS include:

1. Easy Administration resulting in reduced administration costs,

2. Increased Security due to broadcast control, if you are using simple hub, you can observe traffic corresponding to any node by simply inserting a Network analyzer.

3. Grouping based on functional requirements irrespective of physical location of nodes,

4. Simplify moves, adds, changes,

5. Distribution of traffic thereby using the network bandwidth more efficiently.

Q11. Your internet work consists entirely of Cisco devices. You have given a command “show cdp neighbors”. In the response, you get “S” under the head “Capability”. What does the letter “S” mean?

A. It means “Source Route Bridge”

B. It means “Host”

C. It means “Switch”

D. It means “Static”

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

The command “show CDP neighbors” displays all the neighboring devices connected and their capability. Several capability codes are:
R – Router
H – Host
T – Trans Bridge
I – IGMP
B – Source Route Bridge
r – repeater
S – Switch

This command “show CDP neighbors” displays the following:
1. Neighbor Device ID : The name of the neighbor device;
2. Local Interface : The interface to which this neighbor is heard
3. Capability: Capability of this neighboring device – R for router, S for switch, H for Host etc.
4. Platform: Which type of device the neighbor is. (2500 router or anything else)
5. Port ID: The interface of the remote neighbor you receive CDP information
6. Holdtime: Decremental hold time in seconds

Q12. You want to verify the encapsulation type being used at Data Link layer for interface s0. Which command can you use?

A. Sh ip protocol

B. sh int s0

C. sh ip interface

D. sh processes

Correct answer: B

Explanation:

“sh int ” is a very useful command. It displays the following information:
1. Hardware address
2. Status of interface and the line protocol – carrier detect brings up the serial port(which means that physical layer connections are working) and keep alive bring up the line protocol (which means that Data link layer protocol is working)..
3. MTU, BW, DLY, rely, and load metrics.
4. Encapsulation type (layer 2, Data link layer) – HDLC is the default.

Q13. You want to run 802.2 frame type on your Ethernet interface. Which encapsulation type has to be chosen?

A. Ethernet_II

B. 802.2

C. SAP

D. SNAP

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

There are four different Ethernet framing types. Although several encapsulation types can share the same interface, clients and servers with different types cannot communicate without a router.

1. Ethernet_802.3 – The default for NetWare versions 2.x through 3.11. This is also the default for Cisco routers. Cisco refers to this as Novell-ether.

2. Ethernet_802.2 – The default for NetWare 3.12 and later versions. Cisco refers to this as SAP.

3. Ethernet_II – This is also used with TCP/IP and DECnet. Cisco refers to this as ARPA.

4. Ethernet_SNAP – This is also used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk. Cisco refers to this as SNAP.

Q14. What does -1 signify in an extended IPX access list?

A. permit this host

B. deny this host

C. permit only this subnet

D. any host or any network

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

-1 is used with IPX access lists to specify wildcard networks. This is same as using “any” in IP access lists.

Q15. Which command sequence will allow only traffic from network 185.64.0.0 to enter interface s0?

A. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 255.255.0.0
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 out

B. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 255.255.0.0
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 out

C. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
int s0 ; ip access-list 25 in

D. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
int s0 ; ip access-group 25 in

Correct answer: D

Explanation:

The correct sequence of commands are:
1. access-list 25 permit 185.64.0.0 0.0.255.255
2. int s0
3. ip access-group 25 in

Q16. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. X

Correct answer: A,B

Explanation:

ISDN uses four different reference points to define logical interfaces:
1. R-reference point: Defines the reference point between non-ISDN compatible devices and a Terminal Adapter (TA).
2. S-reference point: Defines the reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
3. T-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 and NT2.
4. U-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 devices and line-termination equipment in a carrier network.
The flow of reference points are:
[TE2] —R—>[TA]—S/T—>[NT1]—>U—>to carrier
[TE2]—>R—>[TA]—>S—>[NT2]—>T—>[NT2]—>to carrier

Q17. Which is true about VLAN Trunk Protocol? [Select 2].

A. VTP is statically configured and no built in intelligence is available.

B. VTP provides intelligence for configuring switches across the network.

C. VTP is not designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

D. VTP is designed to distribute information across the switch fabric.

Correct answer: B, D

Explanation:

VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP) is a layer 2 protocol that maintains VLAN configurations through a common administrative domain. Configurations are made to a VTP server, and are propagated across trunk lines to all switches in the VTP domain. VTP provides auto-intelligence for configuring switches across the network.

Q18. Which of the following is a term associated with WAN terminology / is a WAN device? [Select all that apply].

A. Demarc

B. DSU/CSU

C. Modem

D. CPE

Correct answer: A, B, C, D

Explanation:

WANs are connected over serial lines that operate at lower speeds than LANs. Some important WAN terms are:
1. Modems: Modems connect to public telephone circuits through dial-up.
2. CSU/DSU: Stands for Channel Service Unit / Data Service Unit. CSU/DSUs are used for connecting to Central Office of a Telephone switching company and provides serial WAN connections.
3. Multiplexors (mux): Multiplexors combine two or more signals before transmitting on a single channel. Multiplexing can be done by sharing “time” or “frequency”.
4. CPE stands for Customer Premise Equipment.
5. Demarc : Demarcation point between carrier equipment and CPE.

Q19. Which of the following can be used to view the previous command you entered into a Cisco router? [Select 2].

A. CTRL+F1

B. The Down Arrow

C. The Up Arrow

D. CTRL + P

Correct answer: C, D

Explanation:

The following are some important commands that can be used to edit and review command history buffer. It will be useful to practice these commands.
A : Move to the beginning of the command line
E : Move to the end of the command line
F : Move forward one character, same as using “Right Arrow”.
B : Move backward one character, same as using “Left Arrow”.
P : Repeat Previous command, same as using “Up Arrow”.
N : Repeat Next (more recent) command, same as using “Down Arrow”.
B : Moves to beginning of previous word.
F : Moves to beginning of next word.
R : Creates new command prompt, followed by all the characters typed at the last one.

Q20. What is true about static VLANs? [Choose the best answer].

A. The VLAN is configured by a TFTP server.

B. It automatically notify a new network user.

C. The administrator assigns VLAN by port.

D. Static VLAN are more appropriate when the switch fabric becomes more complex.

Correct answer: C

Explanation:

Static VLANs: The administrator statically configures VLAN port assignment. VLAN memberships on the switch ports are assigned on a port-by-port basis.
Dynamic VLANs: A VMPS (VLAN Management Policy Server) can dynamically assign VLAN ports. The MAC address of the node is used to determine the VLAN assignment. A separate server or a Catalyst 5000 can function as a VMPS server. When a frame arrives on a dynamic port at the switch, it queries the VMPS for the VLAN assignment based on the source MAC address of the arriving frame.

 

Q21: Match the trunking protocols with respective media:

                1. Inter Switch Link    A. FDDI
                2. LANE                    B. Fast Ethernet
                3. 802.10                   C. ATM

Choose the correct choice.             

                   A. 1-> C, 2->B, 3->A

                    B. 1->B, 2->C, 3->A

                    C. 1->B, 2->A, 3->C

                    D. 1->A, 2->B, 3->C

 
 
 
 

                   

Ans:B

Explanation:

ISL, 802.1Q are the VLAN trunking protocols associated with Fast Ethernet. The VLAN trunking protocol defined by 802.10 is associated with FDDI. LANE (LAN Emulation) is associated with ATM.

 

Q22: Your switched network is using Inter-Switch Link (ISL) as VLAN trunking protocol. Which following must be a part of ISL header field?

A. Source Port Number

B.  VLAN-ID

C. Destination port number

D. Destination network number

                                                                                            
 

Ans: B

Explanation:

Inter-Switch Link (ISL) is one of the VLAN trunking protocols used for switched VLAN networks. It uses frame tagging to identify the VLAN. ISL encapsulates the original Ethernet frame, and a VLAN-ID is inserted into the ISL header.

 

Q23: You have configured your network to have 3 VLANs. How many broadcast domains do you have?

                    A. 1

                    B. 2

                    C. 3

                    D. 4

 
 

Ans.: C

Explanation: It is important to know the difference between a collision domain and a broadcast domain. When you use Hubs, all the nodes connected to the hub will be in the same collision domain. However, when you use switches and implement VLANs, each VLAN will be in a separate broadcast domain. The packet forwarding between VLANs is achieved through the use of routing.

 

Q24: Your network has 100 nodes on a single broadcast domain. You have implemented VLANs and segmented the network to have 2 VLANs of 50 nodes each. The resulting broadcast traffic effectively:

            A. Increases two fold

            B. Remains same

            C. Decreases by half

            D. Increases 4 fold

 
  
 
 

Ans: C

Explanation: By implementing VLANs,

1. The effective broadcast traffic decreases, since VLANs do not forward the broadcast traffic from one VLAN to another.

2. The security can be improved by implementing a router (A layer 3 device) to route the packets among VLANs.

 

Q25: Which of the following are valid VLAN Trunk Protocols over Fast Ethernet? [Select 2].

            A. Inter-Switch Link

            B. 802.10

            C. LANE

            D. 802.1Q

 
  
 
 

Ans: A, D

Expl.: Inter-Switch Link and 802.1Q are two VLAN Trunking Protocols used with Fast Ethernet, that Cisco supports. LANE is associated with ATM and 802.10 is associated with FDDI. Also, it is important to note that ISL, 802.1Q, and 802.10 use Frame Tagging to identify the VLANs.

 

 

Q26. Frame Relay DLCIs must be unique in a Frame Relay network.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans.: B

Expl.: DLCI stands for Data-Link Connection Identifier. Frame Relay DLCIs have local significance, which means that the values themselves are not unique in the Frame Relay WAN. DLCIs must be unique on a given access link, i.e. the physical channel on which they reside.

Q27. Which of the following are reference points relevant to ISDN? [Select 2].

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. S

Correct answer: A,B,D

Explanation:

ISDN uses four different reference points to define logical interfaces:
1. R-reference point: Defines the reference point between non-ISDN compatible devices and a Terminal Adapter (TA).
2. S-reference point: Defines the reference point between user terminals and an NT2.
3. T-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 and NT2.
4. U-reference point: Defines the reference point between NT1 devices and line-termination equipment in a carrier network.
The flow of reference points are:
[TE2] —R—>[TA]—S/T—>[NT1]—>U—>to carrier
[TE2]—>R—>[TA]—>S—>[NT2]—>T—>[NT2]—>to carrier

Q28. A frame is received at the destination router over Frame Relay network with FECN bit value set to 1. What does this indicate?

A. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

B. That there is traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

C. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of source to destination.

D. That there is no traffic congestion in the direction of destination to source.

Ans.: A

Expl.: Frame Relay has two types of congestion notification mechanisms:

FECN: Forward-Explicit Congestion Notification, and

BECN: Backward-Explicit Congestion Notification.

If the network is congested in the direction of source to destination, FR switches set the value of the frames FECN to 1(one). DTE devices may implement flow control based on this information. FR switches set the value of BECN bit to 1 (one) in frames traveling in the opposite direction of frames with their FECN bit set. This will enable to DTE device to initiate appropriate flow control in the direction in which the frame has arrived.

Q29: You have configured VLANs in your switched network and now want to check whether you have configured properly. Which command do you use? Assume that you are in privileged EXEC mode. Select one.

A. sh v-lan

B. sh vlan vlan#

C. sh vlan#

D. sh v-lans v-lan#

Ans.: B

Expl.: You use show vlan or shor vlan vlan# command to see the configuration details of VLANs. The command “sh vlan” will display the configuration information for all VLANs, where as the command “sh vlan vlan#” shows only the configuration information pertaining to that vlan. For example, if you want to see the configuration information for vlan2, you give the command “sh vlan 2”.

Q30: You want to see whether the pruning is enabled in you network or not. Which command can you use to check this?

A. sh version

B. sh spantree

C. sh vtp

D. sh vlan

Ans.: C

Expl.: To verify any configuration change, “show vtp” privileged executive command can be used. This command displays, among other things, VTP domain name, VTP password if any, VTP pruning mode (enabled or disabled) and the IP address of the device that last modified the configuration.

 

————————–

Q31. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
                       
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
                       
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
                       
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
                       
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
                       
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
                        Answer: C
                       
Q32. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
                       
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
                       
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
                       
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
                       
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
                       
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
                        Answer: C, E
Q33. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
                       
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
                       
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
                       
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
                       
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
                       
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
                       
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
                        Answer: B, E
                       
Q34. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
                       
A. 172.16.8.0
                       
B. 172.16.9.0
                       
C. 172.16.16.0
                       
D. 172.16.20.0
                       
E. 172.16.24.0
                       
F. 172.16.31.0
                        Answer: B, D, F
                       
Q35. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
                       
A. static NAT
                       
B. dynamic NAT
                       
C. overloading
                       
D. overlapping
                       
E. port loading
                        Answer: C
                       
Q36. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
                       
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
                       
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
                       
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
                       
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates
                        until their effect on end-user equipment is well known
                        and widely reported.
                       
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic
                        antivirus client updates.
                        Answer: B
                       
Q37. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and
                        installed in the center of a square office. A few
                        wireless users are experiencing slow performance and
                        drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency.
                        What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose
                        three.)
                       
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
                       
B. null SSID
                       
C. cordless phones
                       
D. mismatched SSID
                       
E. metal file cabinets
                       
F. antenna type or direction
                        Answer: C, E, F
                       
Q38. What two actions must a router take in order to route
                        incoming packets? (Choose two.)
                       
A. Identify the destination network address of each
                        packet.
                       
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
                       
C. Validate sources of routing information.
                       
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to
                        the destination network address.
                       
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop
                        router.
                       
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source
                        MAC address for each packet.
                        Answer: A, D
                       
Q39. What are two recommended ways of protecting network
                        device configuration files from outside network security
                        threats? (Choose two.)
                       
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY
ports.
                       
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to
                        the network devices.
                       
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line
                        because its data is automatically encrypted.
                       
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated
                        transport to access device configurations.
                       
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password
                        encryption.
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q40. Which two statements describe the IP address
                        10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
                       
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
                       
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1
                        255.255.254.0.
                       
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is
                        10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
                       
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255
                        255.255.254.0.
                       
E. The network is not subnetted.
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q41. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol
                        that provides the information displayed by the show cdp
                        neighbors command operate?
                       
A. physical
                       
B. data link
                       
C. network
                       
D. transport
                       
E. application
                        Answer: B
                       
Q42. Which of the following describe private IP
                        addresses? (Choose two.)
                       
A. addresses chosen by a company to communicate with the
                        Internet
                       
B. addresses that cannot be routed through the public
                        Internet
                       
C. addresses that can be routed through the public
                        Internet
                       
D. a scheme to conserve public addresses
                       
E. addresses licensed to enterprises or ISPs by an
                        Internet registry organization
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q43. WAN data link encapsulation types include which of
                        the following? (Choose two.)
                       
A. T1
                       
B. Frame Relay
                       
C. DSL
                       
D. PPP
                       
E. ISDN
                        Answer: B, D
                       
Q44. Which of the following are found in a TCP header,
                        but not in a UDP header? (Choose three.)
                       
A. sequence number
                       
B. acknowledgment number
                      
C. source port
                       
D. destination port
                       
E. window size
                       
F. checksum
                        Answer: A, B, E
                       
Q45. What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
                       
A. 172.16.0.0
                       
B. 172.16.128.0
                       
C. 172.16.156.0
                       
D. 172.16.159.0
                       
E. 172.16.159.128
                       
F. 172.16.192.0
                        Answer: C

 

Q46: Cisco IOS supports MPPC (Microsoft Point-to-Point Compression algorithm) on one of the following encapsulation types. Choose the correct one.

A. HDLC

B. LAPB

C. PPP

D. Frame-Relay

Ans.: C

Compression algorithms supported by Cisco IOS are:

Encapsulation Type Compression type supported by Cisco IOS
HDLC STAC
LAPB STAC, Predictor
PPP STAC, Predictor, MPPC
Frame-Relay STAC, FRF.9

PPP is supported by STAC, Predictor, and MPPC. Compression algorithms supported by Frame-Relay for payload compression are STAC, and FRF.9.

Q47. Which of the following is not an interface associated with a WAN connection?

A. V.35

B. EIA 232

C. EIA 530

D. MSAU

E. X.21

Ans.: D

Expl.:

Typical WAN interfaces, that one come across frequently are:

EIA 232, EIA 449, EIA 530, V.35, and X.21. The Cisco router serial interface will be a 60-pin D-shell connector. This in turn is connected to service provider equipment, usually through a CSU/ DSU. Therefore, appropriate conversion cable need to be used when interfacing with a WAN device such a CSU/DSU. CSU/ DSU in turn is connected to the service provider through the cable supplied by the service provider.

Q48. Your router is connect to the service provider through a CSU/DSU. Choose appropriate interfaces used in correct order, starting from the router interface.

A. 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45

B. 60-pin D-shell connector –> RJ 45 –> EIA/TIA 232

C. RJ 45 –> 60-pin D-shell connector –> EIA/TIA 232

D. EIA/TIA 232 –> RJ 45 –> 60-pin D shell connector

Ans.: A.

Expl.: Traditionally, the router interface on a serial link is a 60-pin D-shell connector. The CSU/DSU may have EIA/TIA 232 interface to the router. The CSU/DSU interface to the service provider could be RJ-11, RJ-45 etc.

Q49. Frame Relay protocol is based on fixed size frame length. In other words, the frame size can not be flexible.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans.: B (False)

Expl. Frame Relay is WAN protocol, that allows multi-access. Frame Relay works on packet-switched technology. Packet switched networks enable end stations to dynamically share the network medium and the available bandwidth. In Frame Relay, variable-length packets are used for more efficient and flexible data transfer.

Q50. Frame Relay supports which of the following?

A. PVCs only

B. SVCs only

C. Both PVCs and SVCs

D. None

Ans.C

Expl.: Frame Relay supports two type of virtual circuits (VCs):

1. Permanent Virtual Circuits (PVCs) _ these are permanently established connection that are used for frequent and consistent data transfers between DTEs across a Frame Relay cloud.

2. Switched Virtual Circuits (SVCs) _ these are temporary connections used in situations requiring only occassional data transfers between DTEs across Frame Relay cloud.
The terms “Call Setup”, “Data Transfer”, “Idle”, and “Call Termination” are associated with SVCs. Frame Relay SVCs are not widely supported by manufacturers.

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Free Online Exams

Posted on September 7, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Others, Practice Exam |

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CCENT Practice Exam – 22 Question Set

Posted on August 25, 2009. Filed under: CCNA, Others, Practice Exam | Tags: , , , |

Exame Source

01. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
(A) to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
(B) to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
(C) to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
(D) to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
(E) to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports

 

02. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
(A) static NAT
(B) dynamic NAT
(C) overloading
(D) overlapping
(E) port loading

 

03. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
(A) Allow users to develop their own approach to network security
(B) Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals
(C) Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten
(D) Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported
(E) Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates

 

04. Which of the following commands will configure a default route to any destination network not found in the routing table?
(A) Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
(B) Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 s0
(C) Router(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 s0
(D) Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0
(E) Router(config)# ip route any any e0

 

05. For security reasons, information about RTA, including platform and IP addresses, should not be accessible from the Internet. This information should, however, be accessible to devices on the internal networks of RT A. Which command or series of commands will accomplish these objectives?
(A) RTA(config)#no cdp run
(B) RTA(config)#no cdp enable
(C) RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp run
(D) RTA(config)#interface s0/0
RTA(config-if)#no cdp enable

 

06. What is the purpose of flow control?
(A) to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
(B) to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
(C) to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
(D) to regulate the size of each segment

 

07. Host A has established a communication session with host B for the first time. What enabled R1 to forward this traffic in the appropriate direction to reach the nework to which host B is attached?
(A) DNS
(B) DHCP
(C) TCP/IP
(D) a Layer 4 protocol
(E) a routing protocol
(F) a default gateway

 

08. What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?
(A) the summarized address for all of the internal subnetted addresses
(B) the MAC address of the router used by inside hosts to connect to the Internet
(C) a globally unique, private IP address assigned to a host on the inside network
(D) a registered address that represents an inside host to an outside network

 

09. How many simultaneous Telnet sessions does a Cisco router support by default?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
(F) 6

 

10. which prompt is the global configuration mode on a Cisco router identified?
(A) Router>
(B) Router#
(C) Router(config)#
(D) Router(config-if)#
(E) Router(config-line)#c
(F) Router(config-router)#

 

11. Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
(A) the MAC address of router interface e0
(B) the MAC address of router interface e1
(C) the MAC address of the server network interface
(D) the MAC address of host A

 

12. Which IP address is a private address?
(A) 12.0.0.1
(B) 168.172.19.39
(C) 172.20.14.36
(D) 172.33.194.30
(E) 192.169.42.34

 

13. Which encryption type does WPA2 use?
(A) AES-CCMP
(B) PPK via IV
(C) PSK
(D) TKIP/MIC

 

14. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP ports?
(A) FTP
(B) SMTP
(C) Telnet
(D) DNS

 

15. Three access points have been installed and configured to cover a small office. What term defines the wireless topology?
(A) BSS
(B) IBSS
(C) ESS
(D) SSID

 

16. Which command is used on a Cisco router to reach the global configuration mode?
(A) Router> enable
(B) Router# router
(C) Router# setup
(D) Router# interface
(E) Router# configure terminal

 

17. Which command will set the default gateway to 192.168.12.1 on a Cisco switch?
(A) Switch(config)# ip default-network 192.168.12.1
(B) Switch(config)# ip route-default 192.168.12.1
(C) Switch(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.12.1
(D) Switch(config)# ip route 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0

 

18. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
(A) Only the enable password will be encrypted
(B) Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
(C) Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted
(D) It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration
(E) It will encrypt all current and future passwords

 

19. What is the purpose of a default route?
(A) It is a route to be used when the routing protocol fails
(B) It is a route configured by an ISP that sends traffic into a corporate network
(C) It is a route used when a packet is destined for a remote network that is not listed in the routing table.
(D) It is a route manually configured for a specific remote network for which a routing protocol is not configured.
(E) It is used to send traffic to a stub network.
20. Workstation A must be able to telnet to switch SW-A through router RTA for management purposes. What must be configured for this connection to be successful?
(A) VLAN 1 on RTA
(B) default gateway on SW-A
(C) IP routing on SW-A
(D) cross-over cable connecting SW-A and RTA
21. At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
(A) physical
(B) data link
(C) network
(D) transport
(E) application
22. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?
(A) Enable the Serial 0/0 interface
(B) Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0
(C) Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
(D) Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
(E) Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
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